Please Explain: How Is 5°F ***NOT*** Three Times Warmer Than 15°F????
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Prisoner at War - 12 Nov 2006 14:52 GMT >From the famous Vassar Stats text at <http://departments.vassar.edu/~lowry/webtext.html>:
Scales of measurement that have both equal intervals and absolute zero points are spoken of as ratio scales, for the simple reason that they permit the meaningful calculation of ratios. If you find, for example, that object A is 5 inches wide and object B is 15 inches wide, it is legitimate and meaningful to conclude that object B is three times as wide as object A, or alternatively, that object A is only one-third as wide as object B. Similarly, it makes sense to say that 15 students are three times as many as 5 students, and that 5 students are only one-third as many as 15 students. If the high temperatures on two successive winter days are 5°F and 15°F, on the other hand, it makes no sense at all to conclude that the second day is three times as warm as the first-because the zero point from which 5°F and 15°F are starting out is only an arbitrary marker on a scale that potentially extends all the way down to about -460°F. In order to make such ratio judgments concerning temperatures we would have to use a scale, such as the Kelvin scale, whose zero point does mark an absolute zero level of temperature.
José Carlos Santos - 12 Nov 2006 15:35 GMT >>From the famous Vassar Stats text at > <http://departments.vassar.edu/~lowry/webtext.html>: [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > such as the Kelvin scale, whose zero point does mark an absolute zero > level of temperature. Because if the assertion "I am twice as tall as my son" is true for some scale, then it remains true for any other scale that I use to measure both me and my son. If, say, I am 186 centimeters tall and my son is 93 centimeters tall, then the number of my height in centimeters is twice the number of his height in centimeters and if I now decide that we shall be measured in, say, inches, then my height measured in inches will be twice his height measured in inches. This is *not* true for scales of temperature in which the 0 point is arbitrary; just convert 5°F and 15°F to Celsius degrees to see what I mean.
Besides, the question at the subject of your post should have the numbers 5 and 15 exchanged.
Best regards,
Jose Carlos Santos
Prisoner at War - 12 Nov 2006 16:35 GMT > Because if the assertion "I am twice as tall as my son" is true for some > scale, then it remains true for any other scale that I use to measure [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > scales of temperature in which the 0 point is arbitrary; just convert > 5°F and 15°F to Celsius degrees to see what I mean. Now this seems just the kind of semantic stumbling block I often have with mathematics: half the time I'm battling definitions!
By simple arithmetic 15°F is indeed 3X warmer than 5°F -- I don't see why other scales and their intervals have to do with it. Sure, on other scales the same increase in temperature would post bigger or smaller numbers, but no matter how it is measured, the increase is "that much" greater! It just so happens that in Farenheit, it's 3X greater and since we're talking Farenheit here, "15°F is 3X warmer than 5°F!" The author should have let alone the colloquial, quotidian way of parsing things, but note that on other scales, with their different intervals, blah blah blah -- instead of saying "no it's not warmer," which sounds like an ontological statement about the physical condition instead of the technical hair-splitting semantic observation that it is.
I guess I just take math much too literally. I'm rather attuned to the nuances of words and their context-dependent definitions and connotations, but it's probably an even bigger semantic mess in mathematics for me -- until recently, I never understood how there could be a "negative" exponent, philosophically speaking: what does it *mean* when an exponent means to increase, but negatively??? I followed the rules for calculating such things, of course, but I never understood how a quantity can be increased negatively (have a negative exponent). Well, it seems that the minus sign for the exponent isn't so much an ontological statement (positive or negative) as simply an instruction or direction as to what to do with that number: a negative exponent isn't a statement about the quantity, but an instruction on what to do with that quantity. Okay, but then why don't we use some other symbol? This is like the ol' Abott and Costello "Who's on first, Watts on second" routine! Mathematical homonyms???
> Besides, the question at the subject of your post should have the > numbers 5 and 15 exchanged. Indeed! This is a personality quirk with me: when I get confused over one little thing, I start babbling and wind up totally confused over everything (like the ol' Blue Screen of Death in Windows, as you see).
> Best regards, > > Jose Carlos Santos Paul {Hamilton Rooney} - 12 Nov 2006 16:47 GMT >By simple arithmetic 15°F is indeed 3X warmer than 5°F No it isn't. By simple arithmetic it is 3x the number of degrees Fahrenheit. Not the same thing at all.
I stand on top of the 5 ft pillar which is on top of a 3000 ft mountain. Then I stand on the next pillar a few feet away which is 15 ft tall.
Am I now three times as high as I was before?
Hint: 1st height is 3005 ft. 2nd height is 3015 ft.
It's the same with degrees fahrenheit - 0 degrees isn't at the bottom, but is a long way up the scale!
Prisoner at War - 12 Nov 2006 17:31 GMT > No it isn't. By simple arithmetic it is 3x the number of degrees > Fahrenheit. Not the same thing at all. Well, that's why I had noted the issue of semantics: to say 3X warmer, one has to know what it means
> I stand on top of the 5 ft pillar which is on top of a 3000 ft mountain. > Then I stand on the next pillar a few feet away which is 15 ft tall. [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > It's the same with degrees fahrenheit - 0 degrees isn't at the bottom, but > is a long way up the scale! Thanks for a great analogy! But I'm not sure if it's a one-for-one match here: your referent is the base of the mountain, but colloquially, if you'd claimed to be 3X taller, folks would have understood you to mean 3X taller vis-à-vis your first position on the peak of the mountain.
I understand your point (and thanks to everybody for their help), but mine now is that I wish mathematicians would be as sensitive to language as the rest of us are supposed to be strictly correct in our calculations! It doesn't help to say "15 Fahrenheit isn't 3X warmer than 5 Fahrenheit" when of course that's precisely how we speak when talking about the weather. No, he should have said, instead, something like "but notice that the same warmth [the degree of atomic movement] as measured in Celsisus yields barely over five degrees in difference" (-15 Celsius to -9.4 Celsius)...to simply say 15F isn't 3X (warmer than) 5F is confusing!
Seriously, I support universal numeracy -- I'm a struggling adult learner -- but I say that mathematicians ought to improve their literacy as well! It's amazing how simple math can be once I understand what the heck is really being said!!
C6L1V@shaw.ca - 12 Nov 2006 17:53 GMT > > No it isn't. By simple arithmetic it is 3x the number of degrees > > Fahrenheit. Not the same thing at all. [quoted text clipped - 22 lines] > language as the rest of us are supposed to be strictly correct in our > calculations! In a technical subject (including mathematics) we sometimes use words a bit differently than in casual, across-the-back-fence conversation. For example, in physics, the word "momentum" has a definite meaning that is not the same as its usage in ordinary conversation. In mathematics, the word "group" means something different than it does in the coffee shop or in Shakespeare. The passage you were complaining about was attempting to get the reader to drop the ingrained habit of always assuming that 15 something is three time 5 something, or, at least, to stop thinking it must always mean anything. It is not that mathematicians are insensitive to language (although some may be); rather, it is that they want to speak with more than normal precision, at least when they are talking about their own subject. If you are worrying about these things for hours on end, you are spending far too much time on inessentials and far too little time actually learning concepts and methods.
R.G. Vickson
> It doesn't help to say "15 Fahrenheit isn't 3X warmer > than 5 Fahrenheit" when of course that's precisely how we speak when [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > literacy as well! It's amazing how simple math can be once I > understand what the heck is really being said!! Prisoner at War - 12 Nov 2006 18:20 GMT > In a technical subject (including mathematics) we sometimes use words a > bit differently than in casual, across-the-back-fence conversation. For [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > > R.G. Vickson Believe it or not, I used to be a star at a local community (junior) college math lab with trig and algebra. I was an unpaid tutor, able to help folks! I was rarely stumped. In college (senior, four-year college), I posted top grades in math, much as I've done all my life.
But you see, that's just the problem that's been nagging me all along: I've been applying methods successfully, but with no idea or feeling for the concepts at all! That's why I seem to be belaboring this small point. As well, given that it is raised at all by the author of that text, right in the beginning within the context of a pedagogy (so stated in his introduction) of focusing on fundamentals first, it doesn't seem that small a point. It is, indeed, what's been eating me all my "mathematical life" -- I follow orders, but I have no idea what they mean.
But I suspect you're right: more practice. That's why I'm about to go for a second (undergraduate) degree, in mathematics, just for the heck of it. I feel terribly embarrassed not knowing what a fraction really is (I know about pizza slices and all that, yeah, but I can't begin to explain [essentially, visualize] what it means to take two-thirds of a pie and subtract from that a hundred-fortieth of a pie, and then multiply the result by six-fifths of a pie). I do hope it all gets better with practice. Simply learning enough required math for the required courses for the time required to get a course grade just isn't doing it.
Brett Magill - 12 Nov 2006 18:58 GMT Here is a simple example.
Suppose I have 20 apples, but redefine the scale such that 10 is zero. On my redefined scale, where zero is arbitrary and meaningless, the count is 10. Now I add 10 apples to my original number. On my new scale, my count is 20, numerically 2X as much. But that does not reflect the real change in the number of apples, that is from 20 to 30. I can say that I have exactly 10 more apples, but not twice as many. That is the scale is interval, not ratio.
The issue is the relationship with some real and meaningful zero point. Scales like F for temperature set an arbitrary zero, that is not related to anything meaningful. This does not mean they are not useful.
Prisoner at War - 12 Nov 2006 19:49 GMT > Here is a simple example. > > Suppose I have 20 apples, but redefine the scale such that 10 is zero. > On my redefined scale, where zero is arbitrary and meaningless, the > count is 10. Now I add 10 apples to my original number. On my new > scale, my count is 20, numerically 2X as much. Um, don't you mean "40" on this redefined scale?? Or are you starting with no apples (instead of the 20 you seem to say you originally had)???
> But that does not > reflect the real change in the number of apples, that is from 20 to 30. > I can say that I have exactly 10 more apples, but not twice as many. Ah, okay, I see, kind of like z-scores in Statistics, converting one scale into another...except with z-scores, the intervals have a one-to-one correspondance across scales...??
> That is the scale is interval, not ratio. HMMM!!!
"Interval"...that's "width" between one "tick" and the next (on a ruler, say)...but what's a "ratio" here, then?? Hmm, it's my old problem with fractions again -- no wonder I'm confused....
I sense what you're saying, though, even if I can't quite put my finger on it...thanks for the hand-holding! I'll try to wrap my puny mind around this (amazing I can get A's in math for years and not have any idea what I'm doing)....
Ratio...interval..."ratio" is "numerically meaningful width" between two points..."interval" is any "arbitrary width" between two points...right??
> The issue is the relationship with some real and meaningful zero point. > Scales like F for temperature set an arbitrary zero, that is not > related to anything meaningful. This does not mean they are not useful. Why was it set to something arbitrary when it seems so much more logical that if they're measures of heat, their "original referent" ought to be the absolute absence of heat??? Kinda like how the "original referent" of height is the total lack of height....
C6L1V@shaw.ca - 12 Nov 2006 20:05 GMT > > In a technical subject (including mathematics) we sometimes use words a > > bit differently than in casual, across-the-back-fence conversation. For [quoted text clipped - 26 lines] > stated in his introduction) of focusing on fundamentals first, it > doesn't seem that small a point. I think I know why the author did that: he/she knows it is an issue that will bother students over and over again, so wants to deal with it right away. Before retiring, I taught Operations Research models and methods for more than 30 years, and every year, year in and year out, the same problem always arose: how to get students to stop thinking of a "number of objects" as necessarily being an integer. For example, a model might involve production quantities, and the variables in the model might be R = number of red widgets, B =number of blue widgets to produce per week. So, there would be constraints on manpower, money, productive capacity, raw materials, etc., and the final model might be a linear programming problem in variables R and B. Many students would insist on adding the constrtaints that R and B must be whole numbers; after all, these quantities are defined as *numbers* of objects per week. In fact, in a _linear_ model, we let R and B be fractional, and later deal with the issue of a fractional solution if it arises. The students were trying to put the cart before the horse, or to run before they could walk.
Now, you seem to be bothered by several concepts of "number"; you mentioned zero, negative numbers, etc. Although you didn't do so, you could have also mentioned fractions (what does it mean to have 2/7 of an apple pie?), and irrational numbers such as pi or the square root of 2. Well, it all has to do with "extension". We start off with whole numbers, then generalize to negative integers, then generalize to fractions, then to real numbers and finally to complex numbers. Why do we do this? If we assume that many of the concepts and methods arose from practical problems, it must be the case that we use fractions because we need them, and use negative numbers because we need them. Of course, to speak of -2 apples seems nonsensical, but that might be just because we should, perhaps, have invented a different term than "number". Or, it may be, as in many business and industrial situations, that an inventory of -2 apples means we have 2 apples on backorder. If my bank balance is -$1000 it means that I owe the bank $1000. Accounting statements indicate this by putting brackets around the number ($1000) instead of a minus sign, but it really amounts to the same thing.
To return to your original example: to speak of 15 degrees F as being 3 times as warm as 5 degrees F is wrong, since we first need a "warmness" measure that makes physical sense. The one that does have physical significance is the absolute temperature scale, and in those terms, 5 and 15 degrees F are only very slightly different. In casual conversation we might think about these matters differently, but the author was, after all, discussing a "technical" subject, in which words might be used a bit differently than in their everyday occurrences.
R.G. Vickson Adjunct Professor, University of Waterloo
> It is, indeed, what's been eating me > all my "mathematical life" -- I follow orders, but I have no idea what [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > required courses for the time required to get a course grade just isn't > doing it. C6L1V@shaw.ca - 12 Nov 2006 20:12 GMT > > In a technical subject (including mathematics) we sometimes use words a > > bit differently than in casual, across-the-back-fence conversation. For [quoted text clipped - 26 lines] > stated in his introduction) of focusing on fundamentals first, it > doesn't seem that small a point. I think I know why the author did that: he/she knows it is an issue that will bother students over and over again, so wants to deal with it right away. Before retiring, I taught Operations Research models and methods for more than 30 years, and every year, year in and year out, the same problem always arose: how to get students to stop thinking of a "number of objects" as necessarily being an integer. For example, a model might involve production quantities, and the variables in the model might be R = number of red widgets, B =number of blue widgets to produce per week. So, there would be constraints on manpower, money, productive capacity, raw materials, etc., and the final model might be a linear programming problem in variables R and B. Many students would insist on adding the constrtaints that R and B must be whole numbers; after all, these quantities are defined as *numbers* of objects per week. In fact, in a _linear_ model, we let R and B be fractional, and later deal with the issue of a fractional solution if it arises. The students were trying to put the cart before the horse, or to run before they could walk.
Now, you seem to be bothered by several concepts of "number"; you mentioned zero, negative numbers, fractions, etc. Although you didn't do so, you could have also mentioned irrational numbers such as pi or the square root of 2. How did all these thing come to be? Well, it all has to do with "extension". We start off with whole numbers, then generalize to negative integers, then generalize to fractions, then to real numbers and finally to complex numbers. Why do we do this? If we assume that many of the concepts and methods arise from practical problems, it must be the case that we use fractions because we need them, and use negative numbers because we need them. Ditto for complex numbers: to an electical engineer, a complex voltage is no more mysterious than a dozen eggs, and to a physicist, a complex-valued quantum-mechanical wave function is just as meaningful as a lottery ticket.
Of course, to speak of -2 apples seems nonsensical, but that might be just because we should, perhaps, have invented a different term than "number". Or, it may be, as in many business and industrial situations, that an inventory of -2 apples means we have 2 apples on backorder. If my bank balance is -$1000 it means that I owe the bank $1000. Accounting statements indicate this by putting brackets around the number ($1000) instead of a minus sign, but it really amounts to the same thing.
To return to your original example: to speak of 15 degrees F as being 3 times as warm as 5 degrees F is wrong, since we first need a "warmness" measure that makes physical sense. The one that does have physical significance is the absolute temperature scale, and in those terms, 5 and 15 degrees F are only very slightly different. In casual conversation we might think about these matters differently, but the author was, after all, discussing a "technical" subject, in which words might be used a bit differently than in their everyday occurrences.
R.G. Vickson Adjunct Professor, University of Waterloo
> It is, indeed, what's been eating me > all my "mathematical life" -- I follow orders, but I have no idea what [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > required courses for the time required to get a course grade just isn't > doing it. Virgil - 12 Nov 2006 20:40 GMT > > In a technical subject (including mathematics) we sometimes use words a > > bit differently than in casual, across-the-back-fence conversation. For [quoted text clipped - 39 lines] > required courses for the time required to get a course grade just isn't > doing it. Part of the problem is that many people think that mathematics is more like music than medicine.
One can listen to and appreciate music quite easily and without much mental effort, though it does require effort to produce it, so that one gets the notion that one knows a lot more about it than is actually the case.
Most of us, without having gone though the intensive study of a medical degree of some sort are quite happy to acknowledge our lack of any deep understanding of most things medical.
In that sense math is more like medical studies than musical ones.
Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 00:49 GMT What an interesting idea!
Actually, I think that before the "new math" and "math anxiety" "revolutions," most folks did assume mathematics to be more like medicine than music, something requiring not only expertise but a rare kind of talent.
I am an adult learner who was a pretty successful (~87% A's and B's) "math parrot" all my life but now I want to really understand this stuff inside-out, and I'm making such an attempt on the assumption that math is indeed more like music than medicine (though I choke on it the way I choke on medicine!).
What's perhaps even more puzzling to me, now, is why I'm so befuddled by what appears to be such a simple petty matter. There is a crucial assumption that's hidden from me which prevents me from my "eureka!" moment here...I sense what folks are saying about scales and arbitrary zeros versus meaningful zeros but it's not exactly gelling together just yet....
> Part of the problem is that many people think that mathematics is more > like music than medicine. [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > > In that sense math is more like medical studies than musical ones. Paul {Hamilton Rooney} - 13 Nov 2006 01:01 GMT >What an interesting idea! > [quoted text clipped - 15 lines] >zeros versus meaningful zeros but it's not exactly gelling together >just yet.... Just accept that you're thick.
Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 01:10 GMT > Just accept that you're thick. You'll never believe what I do for a living.
I wonder as to the nature of confusion. It seems that, mental infirmaties aside, confusion exists simply because all the pieces of the puzzle aren't present. Confounding the confusion is not knowing what's not known (? la Rumsfeld's "known unknowns and unknown unknowns").
Think about it: why have some folks developed so much math and others have not? Something like zero seems so simple, and yet it was tens of thousands of years, apparently, before anyone came up with the idea! Was the human race, even Pythagoras himself, "thick"?
In any case, I must press on, press my case to the annoyance of all. I've got to know, and know why I don't know! I take comfort in the fact that, just as a teenager knows as much as Pythagoras ever did (if that teen studies, anyway), one day a typical teen will know as much as, say, Ed Witten does (and just how's he determined to be Einstein's "true successor," anyway???).
C6L1V@shaw.ca - 12 Nov 2006 21:02 GMT > > In a technical subject (including mathematics) we sometimes use words a > > bit differently than in casual, across-the-back-fence conversation. For [quoted text clipped - 26 lines] > stated in his introduction) of focusing on fundamentals first, it > doesn't seem that small a point. I think I know why the author did that: he/she knows it is an issue that will bother students over and over again, so wants to deal with it right away. Before retiring, I taught Operations Research models and methods for more than 30 years, and every year, year in and year out, the same problem always arose: how to get students to stop thinking of a "number of objects" as necessarily being an integer. For example, a model might involve production quantities, and the variables in the model might be R = number of red widgets, B =number of blue widgets to produce per week. So, there would be constraints on manpower, money, productive capacity, raw materials, etc., and the final model might be a linear programming problem in variables R and B. Many students would insist on adding the constrtaints that R and B must be whole numbers; after all, these quantities are defined as *numbers* of objects per week. In fact, in a _linear_ model, we let R and B be fractional, and later deal with the issue of a fractional solution if it arises. The students were trying to put the cart before the horse, or to run before they could walk.
Now, you seem to be bothered by several concepts of "number"; you mentioned zero, negative numbers, fractions, etc. Although you didn't do so, you could have also mentioned irrational numbers such as pi or the square root of 2. Where do these things come from? Well, it all has to do with "extension". We start off with whole numbers, then generalize to negative integers, then generalize to fractions, then to real numbers and finally to complex numbers. Why do we do this? If we assume that many of the concepts and methods arise from practical problems, it must be the case that we use fractions because we need them, and use negative numbers because we need them. Of course, to speak of -2 apples seems nonsensical, but that might be just because we should, perhaps, have invented a different term than "number". Or, it may be, as in many business and industrial situations, that an inventory of -2 apples means we have 2 apples on backorder. If my bank balance is -$1000 it means that I owe the bank $1000. Accounting statements indicate this by putting brackets around the number ($1000) instead of a minus sign, but it really amounts to the same thing.
As for complex numbers: while the man on the street might find complex and/or imaginary numbers to be nonsensical, to the electical engineer a complex-valued voltage is no more mysterious than a dozen eggs and to the physicist a complex-valued quantum-mechanical wave function is no less "real" than a lottery ticket.
To return to your original example: to speak of 15 degrees F as being 3 times as warm as 5 degrees F is wrong, since we first need a "warmness" measure that makes physical sense. The one that does have physical significance is the absolute temperature scale, and in those terms, 5 and 15 degrees F are only very slightly different. In casual conversation we might think about these matters differently, but the author was, after all, discussing a "technical" subject, in which words might be used a bit differently than in their everyday occurrences.
Finally, I am not sure who is to blame, but I am not convinced that the types of "scale" material that is bothering you can be laid at the feet of mathematicians at all. Many of these things seem to arise in psychology or sociology and the like. If you Google the term "interval scale", you will be led to several web pages that discuss scales of all types (ordinal, nominal, interval and ratio). Different scales are used in different contexts and for different reasons. The point being made by the author of the passage bothering you is that certain quantities are measured in a ratio scale, but others are not. Standard temperature measures used in meteorology are examples of quantities measured on an interval, but not ratio, scale. On the other hand, a chemical engineer would typically use temperature as measured on a ratio scale by going to degrees Kelvin or their Farenheit equivalent. Different tools for different purposes!
R.G. Vickson Adjunct Professor, University of Waterloo
> It is, indeed, what's been eating me > all my "mathematical life" -- I follow orders, but I have no idea what [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > required courses for the time required to get a course grade just isn't > doing it. morrison@lsd.net.nz - 12 Nov 2006 22:34 GMT *snip*
> Believe it or not, I used to be a star at a local community (junior) > college math lab with trig and algebra. I was an unpaid tutor, able to [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > all my "mathematical life" -- I follow orders, but I have no idea what > they mean. *snip*
I don't know if this is relevant to your difficulty, but my experience as a tutor (not math) has taught me that when a technical point seems obscure or confusing, there is usually a _historical_ explanation. People mess things up all the time, usually with good intentions, and then the resulting mess has enough inertia that it can't be supplanted by a more logical solution. I don't claim to be an expert, but perhaps a little story about temperature measurement will make things clearer to you. It may not; it will only explain why temperature measurement is messed up, not what to do about it.
The Fahrenheit scale was proposed by Gabriel Fahrenheit in 1724, who (according to Wikipedia) was annoyed that Ole Roemer's temperature scale produced negative numbers as measurements in everyday situations. Fahrenheit wanted to make a new scale which produced 'friendlier' numbers. Hooray! Good intentions!
Back in those days the thing to do was to pick two useful-seeming temperatures, call one of them 0 and the other 100. Fahrenheit did this, and it was called the Fahrenheit scale. The story I heard was that Fahrenheit picked the freezing point of sea water (useful for sailors, I guess) and body temperature. Wikipedia has more variations on the story if you're interested.
In 1742 Anders Celsius did the same kind of thing, with the freezing point and boiling point of pure water. It was called the Celsius scale. In 1848 William Thomson, 1st Baron Kelvin wrote a paper complaining about the lack of a temperature scale rooted at 'absolute zero', the state where a material has no heat energy (even due to particle motion and so forth), which is about -273 Celsius. His scale became known as the kelvin scale. The kelvin scale is still a bit arbitrary; 0 kelvin is good because you can't get any colder than no heat at all, but the magnitude of a degree kelvin is still related to the properties of water.
So, now we have degrees kelvin which starts at absolute zero instead of the freezing point of water. This kind of scale is much more useful for physicists because 15 kelvin is three times as hot as 5 kelvin in a meaningful sense, because 0 kelvin _actually means_ no heat, unlike 0 Fahrenheit or 0 Celsius which just mean 'pretty cold'. But the kelvin scale never caught on in popular use, perhaps because weather reporters feel silly saying "it's going to be a chilly 280 degrees today".
Fahrenheit, Celsius and kelvin all measure the same property (temperature), but they use different scales to do it. They are all an abstraction of the same thing, and it's the abstraction process which introduces mathematical problems.
Another way of looking at it is that Fahrenheit is a bad abstraction of the real world, precisely _because_ 15F != 5F. This unfortunate fact is because of the way the abstraction was made. I won't try to talk about things like whether particular abstractions obey associativity rules -- I think that would be a job for someone in sci.logic, and I know just enough to get myself into trouble.
I apologise if that wasn't helpful for you, or you already knew all about it (I see some sci.* newsgroups in the reply-to field, I probably offended someone there with a dangerously over-simplified science story). The point I'm trying to get at is that 15F is not three times 5F because of a quirk of history, not because of an obscure mathematical principle.
Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 00:41 GMT Hi,
Thanks for another interesting take on the matter! What you say reminds me of how algebraic notation came about -- I understand that historically, it was even more confusing before Descartes or somebody started using letters and symbols instead of writing the whole thing out in everyday language! So yes, I can better "appreciate" my confusion now given the historical development you cite.
Unfortunately, for some reason I just don't get it. Maybe I should be posting to a philosophy or even psychology newsgroup as well. I just don't understand why not having a "meaningful zero" (in the cases of F and C) has anything to do with why 15F is not 3X warmer than 5F. Would it be correct to simply say "15F is 10 degrees warmer than 5F," at least? So why not "15F is three times warmer than 5F"? It seems that everyone is saying that without an "absolute zero," the adjective "warmer," even when "used numerically" like in "3X warmer," has no meaning...but for me, the meaning is simply arithmetic -- 5F three times gives 15F!
So how about "3X more than"?? Would it be correct to say "15F is 3X more than 5F"? Seems like the comparative "warmer" is the key issue here...folks want to say that "warmer" must refer to some "actual" scale of temperature that's rather Platonic (in the sense of ideal Platonic Forms)...it seems that I'm just letting the comparative mean, in effect, "3X more" arithmetically -- which certainly feels warmer to me, I'm sure -- while others insist that it must mean "truly" warmer vis-?-vis some Platonic Form of Temperature, some absolute notion of Temperature....
> I don't know if this is relevant to your difficulty, but my experience > as a tutor (not math) has taught me that when a technical point seems [quoted text clipped - 56 lines] > 5F because of a quirk of history, not because of an obscure > mathematical principle. Paul {Hamilton Rooney} - 13 Nov 2006 00:53 GMT >Platonic Form of Temperature, some absolute notion of >Temperature.... It's not Platonic - it's real warmth we're discussing. And 15F is nowhere near three times as 5F in terms of amount of heat present.
Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 01:01 GMT > It's not Platonic - it's real warmth we're discussing. And 15F is nowhere > near three times as 5F in terms of amount of heat present. I didn't mean "Platonic" in a dismissive way -- to Platonists, the Platonic is the only real thing around!
I used that word in its "absolutist" sense, which seems to be the sense in which folks are thinking of "three times warmer" (three times the amount of heat)...if the Fahrenheit scale is not measuring heat, then what's it measuring? And if it's measuring heat (temperature -- these are synonyms here, right?), then how is 15F not 3X more (warm, 3X more warm, 3X warmer) than 5F??
Sorry, I'm sure everyone's annoyed with me now, but believe me, it's not easy being me....
Paul {Hamilton Rooney} - 13 Nov 2006 01:08 GMT >.if the Fahrenheit scale is not measuring heat, then >what's it measuring? Arbitrary increments of the amount of heat present above and below the freezing point of alcohol, I believe.
Barb Knox - 13 Nov 2006 04:00 GMT > > It's not Platonic - it's real warmth we're discussing. And 15F is nowhere > > near three times as 5F in terms of amount of heat present. [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > are synonyms here, right?), then how is 15F not 3X more (warm, 3X more > warm, 3X warmer) than 5F?? Consider the inconsistencies that arise if you carry your method further.
For example, would you say that 15F is "infinitely warmer" than 0F ?
For another example, if you accept that 5F is the same temperature as -15C, and that 15F is about the same temperature as -9.4C, then by referential transparency would you say that -15C is about three times warmer than -9.4C ?
Note that given ANY two different temperatures, one could define a temperature scale such that the second was "3 times warmer" than the first by your method (even if the second were actually colder!)
> Sorry, I'm sure everyone's annoyed with me now, but believe me, it's > not easy being me....
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Virgil - 13 Nov 2006 04:25 GMT > Sorry, I'm sure everyone's annoyed with me now, but believe me, it's > not easy being me.... It should be at least 3 times easier that being someone else.
Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 07:36 GMT > > Sorry, I'm sure everyone's annoyed with me now, but believe me, it's > > not easy being me.... > > It should be at least 3 times easier that being someone else. LOL
Actually, I love that line from "Europa Europa" where the Jewish kid is asking the German soldier, who was an actor before the War, whether it's hard to be someone else. The answer was that, no, it's easier than being yourself. I'm sure psychologists would all agree with that one.
Believe me, people think I'm some kind of a math nerd. I was even approached in the NYC subway once, totally out of the blue, ? propos nothing at all (I mean, it wasn't like I had a pocket protector with a million pens or something like that), by a woman who wanted help with her algebra homework! True story; scout's honor. As well, I got top grades in college maths (algebra, trig, stats) and Symbolic Logic I and II. Not that I really understood anything: I just followed the rules. As a matter of fact, I graduated with a degree in English! But I've always wondered why I could do so well, apparently, in math and yet have no idea whatsoever what I'm doing. Can you imagine acing exams on Shakespearean sonnets simply by regurgitating Cliff Notes?
Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 07:26 GMT > Consider the inconsistencies that arise if you carry your method > further. > > For example, would you say that 15F is "infinitely warmer" than 0F ? No, unless we're doing some kind of Zeno's Paradox trick....
> For another example, if you accept that 5F is the same temperature as > -15C, and that 15F is about the same temperature as -9.4C, then by > referential transparency would you say that -15C is about three times > warmer than -9.4C ? Indeed not! But I'd say that on the Fahrenheit scale, 15F is 3x 5F, and insofar as the scale measures "temperature" and "temperature" is "heat," 15F is 3x warmer than 5F! I suppose that I'm being too "literal-minded," in a way, about all this....
> Note that given ANY two different temperatures, one could define a > temperature scale such that the second was "3 times warmer" than the > first by your method (even if the second were actually colder!) Now see, this is just the thing -- I'm taking the scale to be the final arbiter of heat, whereas y'all seem to keep referring to some "outside" absolute point in determining heat. Kinda like I want to say something's "legal" and you folks continue to ask whether it's "moral"....
> -- > --------------------------- [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > | BBB aa a r bbb | > ----------------------------- Sack Lad - 13 Nov 2006 17:29 GMT Hey, Prizzatwar,
You might understand things better if you pulled your head out of your a.s, and actually TRIED to understand. As it is, you seem to have resigned yourself to never understanding, and when someone tries to explain it in language an eight- year-old should understand, all you can say is "I know that's true, but I have this gross misunderstanding that I refuse to part with, and I can't really read what you're writing because my head is in my a.shole."
Maybe you could troll some of the Google Groups that aren't also Usenet newgroups. I don't think you'll offend too many Googletards, they're as clueless as you are.
Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 18:10 GMT Wow. Thus speaketh the math nerd. "I am math nerd, hear me whine!"
Please go back to your Lego blocks. They look lonely without you.
> Hey, Prizzatwar, > [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > also Usenet newgroups. I don't think you'll offend too many > Googletards, they're as clueless as you are. Virgil - 13 Nov 2006 04:03 GMT > Hi, > [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > it be correct to simply say "15F is 10 degrees warmer than 5F," at > least? Of course, 10? warmer is correct But if you insist that 15?F should be 3 times a warm as 5 ?F, then it would also have to be -3 times as warm as -5 ?F, which is a good deal less acceptable.
So for any scale allowing both positive and negative values, it is not too sensible to allude to one measurement representing a certain number of times another.
It is only when Zero is an absolute minimum (or maximum) that one measurement in that scale can be be meaningfully a number of times another.
> So why not "15F is three times warmer than 5F"? It seems that > everyone is saying that without an "absolute zero," the adjective > "warmer," even when "used numerically" like in "3X warmer," has no > meaning...but for me, the meaning is simply arithmetic -- 5F three > times gives 15F! But if zero is not absolute, how do you deal with -5 compared to +15?
> So how about "3X more than"?? Would it be correct to say "15F is 3X > more than 5F"? Ask yourself how it would work for 15 ?F and -5?F.
morrison@lsd.net.nz - 13 Nov 2006 06:21 GMT I know other posters have mentioned number lines, but it's later in the day now and I feel like writing some more. I'll have another go, with illustrative ascii-art :) This will only work if your news reader uses a fixed-width font though, apologies to the rest of you.
In the beginning, Ug the cave man realised that some things were hotter than others:
(colder) (hotter) <-------------------------------------------------> | | | snow pleasant fire - ouch!
But after a few thousand years, people were sick of saying "It's warm in the cave. But not as warm as it is on a sunny hillside in summer. But it is warmer than a sunny hillside in winter, or in the morning in spring." Clever buggers like Fahrenheit and Celsius figured out that some things were always the same temperature, like melting ice, or people (when they're not sick), and that you could pick a couple of these markers and describe temperatures relative to them.
(colder) (hotter) <-------------------------------------------------> &| % | & % | snow pleasant % fire - ouch! & % & % 0F (sea ice?) 100F (people) % % % 0C (melting ice) 100C (boiling water)
This was great! Now people could have conversations like:
"I say old chap, tea is best, don't you think, when made with water at 95 degrees Celsius?"
"No no, old bean, you will scorch it and leave a bitter taste! You must use water at no more than _90_ degrees Celsius!"
Additionally, people who came up with a system for measuring temperature usually had their name tacked on to it. This may have been good for picking up chicks, but contemporary records are silent on the matter.
These systems worked well for everyone except Lord Kelvin who said "Ye stupid f***ers, if ye use your f***in' hed ye'll see tha' it cannae keep gettin' colder fireva!" So it was revealed that the number line for temperature actually looked like this:
(coldest) (colder) (hotter)
|--------- ... -------------------------------------------------> * &| % | & % | * snow pleasant % fire - ouch! * & % & % * 0F (sea ice?) 100F (people) % * % % * 0C (melting ice) 100C (boiling water) * 0K (absolute zero)
I don't know why I think Kelvin should be an angry Scotsman, but presumably he picked up some angry Scottish chicks for his efforts.
Now, let's look at an example:
(coldest) (hotter)
|--------------- ... ----------------> 0 10 20 30 ... about 250 -- kelvin -459.67 ... -5 0 5 10 15 -- Fahrenheit
Now, if you imagine the elipses expanded so that you've got the whole big long number line, it's plain to see that 15F is not three times as far from the start as 5F. That's because Fahrenheit didn't start counting in the right place. On the other hand, 30K IS three times as far from the start as 10K. From some of your other comments in this thread, I suspect you're forgetting that Fahrenheit and kelvin (and snow, pleasant and fire) are all on the _same_ number line, regardless of what you call the different points on it. In fact, the number line doesn't naturally have any numbers on it at all, unless you count absolute zero as a number. Fahrenheit picked a spot he liked and called it 0F. That doesn't mean it's the same thing as zero temperature.
Sorry, I hope that wasn't too painful for everyone. I'm having one of those days where I'm looking for an excuse to write.
Lyall Morrison
Virgil - 12 Nov 2006 20:30 GMT > > No it isn't. By simple arithmetic it is 3x the number of degrees > > Fahrenheit. Not the same thing at all. [quoted text clipped - 28 lines] > (-15 Celsius to -9.4 Celsius)...to simply say 15F isn't 3X (warmer > than) 5F is confusing! And how does one deal with comparing -5 °F with +15 °F ? One should obviously not say that 15° is -3 times warmer than -5°.
> Seriously, I support universal numeracy -- I'm a struggling adult > learner -- but I say that mathematicians ought to improve their > literacy as well! It's amazing how simple math can be once I > understand what the heck is really being said!! Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 01:17 GMT > And how does one deal with comparing -5 °F with +15 °F ? > One should obviously not say that 15° is -3 times warmer than -5°. Huh? Isn't that simply "15° is twenty times warmer than -5°"??
I know now that it's not -- but I don't know why it's not!
There's something I'm missing in all this...(LOL, no, not my left hemisphere, I'm sure).
Art Kendall - 13 Nov 2006 03:03 GMT temperature is a way of measuring "heat". "Heat" is a way of saying amount of intramolecular motion. Zero degrees Kelvin is when there is NO intramolecular motion. Zero degrees centigrade/Celsius is the freezing point of water.
There are different meanings to zero.
It can refer to an abstract notion such as the number line.
It can also refer to counts.
It can also refer to an arbitrary reference point such as temperature, longitude, latitude, any Z-score, etc. Other arbitrary reference points are 100 for IQ, 500 for GRE, SAT, and 50 for T-scores used in psychometrics. Any of the examples after Z-scores above use the mean as a reference point.
One way to distinguish ratio level of measurement from interval level of measurement is to ask whether the zero point has any relation to nothingness or nonbeing in some way.
Art Kendall Social Research Consultants
>>And how does one deal with comparing -5 °F with +15 °F ? >>One should obviously not say that 15° is -3 times warmer than -5°. [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > There's something I'm missing in all this...(LOL, no, not my left > hemisphere, I'm sure). Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 06:17 GMT > temperature is a way of measuring "heat". > "Heat" is a way of saying amount of intramolecular motion. [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > measurement is to ask whether the zero point has any relation to > nothingness or nonbeing in some way. Thanks, that's a very handy tip. I still don't know why it's handy, but insofar as it works, it works. I guess I'm like Samuel Morse who knew how to harness some little aspect of electricity but had no idea what it really is. Thus I'm a good math student but no mathematician at all.
> Art Kendall > Social Research Consultants Pubkeybreaker - 13 Nov 2006 14:24 GMT > temperature is a way of measuring "heat". > "Heat" is a way of saying amount of intramolecular motion. > Zero degrees Kelvin is when there is NO intramolecular motion. Another ignorant troll.
Do us all a favor and stick to subjects that you know.
Zero degress Kelvin does NOT mean no intra-molecular motion.
What it does mean is that everything is at its lowest possible quantum state.
Virgil - 13 Nov 2006 04:06 GMT > > And how does one deal with comparing -5 °F with +15 °F ? > > One should obviously not say that 15° is -3 times warmer than -5°. > > Huh? Isn't that simply "15° is twenty times warmer than -5°"?? It is 20 degrees warmer, but that is 15 - (-5), not 15 / (-5).
> I know now that it's not -- but I don't know why it's not! > > There's something I'm missing in all this...(LOL, no, not my left > hemisphere, I'm sure). Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 07:15 GMT > It is 20 degrees warmer, but that is 15 - (-5), not 15 / (-5). Oops! Of course you're right: that's twenty degrees warmer, not twenty "times" warmer!
Ultimately, I just don't know what is truly meant by the language here...like I was saying elsewhere: "Zero" means "nothing." How can I multiply my one perfectly good pie zero times and have no pie left? How can I multiply one pie by nothing at all and have my pie disappear?
It's semantics. I am, as somebody else observed, "word-overloading." I just don't know the parameters (boundaries) involved. It's like with the word "snow." It means all fifty different things that Eskimos have fifty different words for. I'm doing the same thing, in a way, I guess.
Charles Metz - 16 Nov 2006 01:42 GMT --snip--
> Ultimately, I just don't know what is truly meant by the language > here...like I was saying elsewhere: "Zero" means "nothing." How can I > multiply my one perfectly good pie zero times and have no pie left? > How can I multiply one pie by nothing at all and have my pie disappear? --snip--
If you start with a whole pizza and multiply by (1/2), you end up with less pizza. If you start with a whole pizza and multiply by (1/3), you end up with even less pizza. If you start with a whole pizza and multiply by (1/1000), you end up with a *very* small piece of pizza. Notice that as the number you're multiplying by becomes smaller and smaller, the result becomes smaller and smaller as well. So what is the result if the number you're multiplying by approaches zero? Right: the result approaches zero as well, so we agree -- without fear of contradiction -- that zero times any number equals zero. In contrast, the question of how to define the result of dividing by zero is less clear-cut because contradictions *can* arise if we aren't very careful in deciding what to agree upon as the definition that handles a special, non-intuitive case.
If you sincerely want to understand this and many of the other issues discussed on this thread, your best bet would be to take a math course in "Analysis," which will focus on quantitative limiting arguments of the kind I used above. Most of us learned that subject in high school, and it's a key ingredient of sophisticated mathematical understanding.
Charles Metz
Hatunen - 16 Nov 2006 02:28 GMT >--snip-- >> Ultimately, I just don't know what is truly meant by the language [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] >smaller, the result becomes smaller and smaller as well. So what is the >result if the number you're multiplying by approaches zero? So far, so good.
>Right: the >result approaches zero as well, so we agree -- without fear of >contradiction -- that zero times any number equals zero. That does not follow from the previous statements. There is a huge difference mathematically between "zero" and "approaches zero"; zero is never reachd when taking a limit to zero. needless to say, too, zero times infinity is not zero, but is undefined.
>In contrast, >the question of how to define the result of dividing by zero is less >clear-cut because contradictions *can* arise if we aren't very careful >in deciding what to agree upon as the definition that handles a special, >non-intuitive case. Which is why dividing by zero is mathematically undefined.
>If you sincerely want to understand this and many of the other issues >discussed on this thread, your best bet would be to take a math course >in "Analysis," which will focus on quantitative limiting arguments of >the kind I used above. Most of us learned that subject in high school, >and it's a key ingredient of sophisticated mathematical understanding. Taking a course in calculus is a good introduction to these things.
> Charles Metz ************* DAVE HATUNEN (hatunen@cox.net) ************* * Tucson Arizona, out where the cacti grow * * My typos & mispellings are intentional copyright traps *
Prisoner at War - 16 Nov 2006 19:15 GMT > If you start with a whole pizza and multiply by (1/2), you end up with > less pizza. If you start with a whole pizza and multiply by (1/3), you > end up with even less pizza. If you start with a whole pizza and > multiply by (1/1000), you end up with a *very* small piece of pizza. > Notice that as the number you're multiplying by becomes smaller and > smaller, the result becomes smaller and smaller as well. And that's just so weird, since "multiply" means "to increase."
Now I know how to multiply fractions and so forth -- it just doesn't make sense to me. The semantics get stuck in my throat -- or frontal lobe, rather.
> So what is the > result if the number you're multiplying by approaches zero? Right: the > result approaches zero as well, so we agree -- without fear of > contradiction -- that zero times any number equals zero. Nice little dialectic!
> In contrast, > the question of how to define the result of dividing by zero is less [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > the kind I used above. Most of us learned that subject in high school, > and it's a key ingredient of sophisticated mathematical understanding. "Analysis"? Analysis of what? I had the Sequential Mathematics series back in high school...just a lot of rules -- though geometry was fun, with the logical proofs and whatnot.
I hope to do a second undergrad degree in math, just for my own edification. I'm really looking forward to it. Math professors, beware!
> Charles Metz Barb Knox - 16 Nov 2006 21:18 GMT > > If you start with a whole pizza and multiply by (1/2), you end up with > > less pizza. If you start with a whole pizza and multiply by (1/3), you [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > make sense to me. The semantics get stuck in my throat -- or frontal > lobe, rather. You appear to have mastered the calculation procedures without acquiring any mathematical intuitions ("the semantics"). Sadly, there are very many other students in the same situation. It's likely not your fault, it's just the way "mathematics" is often taught (often by people lacking mathematical intuitions themselves). But if you realise that you have been short-changed then maybe you can remedy your situation; it will however require approaching the subject in a much more "semantic" and less procedural manner.
> > So what is the > > result if the number you're multiplying by approaches zero? Right: the [quoted text clipped - 18 lines] > back in high school...just a lot of rules -- though geometry was fun, > with the logical proofs and whatnot. Please try to believe that "the rules" are NOT the point of mathematics. There really is a deep semantics there.
> I hope to do a second undergrad degree in math, just for my own > edification. I'm really looking forward to it. Math professors, > beware! With that attitude I expect you will gain nothing.
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Prisoner at War - 16 Nov 2006 22:13 GMT > You appear to have mastered the calculation procedures without acquiring > any mathematical intuitions ("the semantics"). Sadly, there are very [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > however require approaching the subject in a much more "semantic" and > less procedural manner. Yes, but, as I've admitted elsewhere, I do think I have maybe a brain lesion or something that makes things more difficult. Still, I'm very happy right now because I've just explained Euclid's Proof on Primes to myself -- I understand it like 99%! Part of learning math is the sheer mental effort involved...I'm a weight-lifter who benches 275 lbs., but physical difficulty I understand...mental difficulty is a weird thing...how do you "push" mentally? Or stretch, mentally...maybe I've been unusually blessed, but all my life, intellectual pursuits either came, and came big, or did not come at all, in which case I did not bother with them any further -- but in the case of mathematics, I'm really intriuged, despite my apparently natural weakness of mind...kinda like an ugly guy lusting after a beautiful girl, I suppose!
> Please try to believe that "the rules" are NOT the point of mathematics. > There really is a deep semantics there. Oh, definitely. I never thought about it much, but over the years it just seemed that math was simply another language, and if so, well, I'm very good with languages! Of course, now I see that it's a language describing abstract things, which is what's so hard -- no easy "picture dictionaries" in this language! No fun dirty words to learn, either...tsk, tsk.
> With that attitude I expect you will gain nothing. How odd! That was an attempt at humor. It may have been a poor attempt, but you seemed not to have recognized it at all. Which struck me because it is often alleged that "math types" do not take to some kinds of humor, while being quite adept at others -- namely, they do not register the ones involving role-playing, while they are good with those that revolve around "trickery."
> -- > --------------------------- [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > | BBB aa a r bbb | > ----------------------------- Eric Bohlman - 12 Nov 2006 17:00 GMT > By simple arithmetic 15°F is indeed 3X warmer than 5°F -- I don't see > why other scales and their intervals have to do with it. Sure, on [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > condition instead of the technical hair-splitting semantic observation > that it is. Nope, it's not hair-splitting. 5 degrees Farenheit doesn't mean "5 more degrees worth of heat than no heat at all"; it means "5 more degrees of heat than are necessary to make ice melt." It takes 459 degrees worth of heat to make ice melt, so 5 degrees F is 464 degrees higher than no heat at all, and 15 degrees F is 474 degrees higher than no heat at all. 474 is 1.02 times 464, not three times.
Essentially, the problem is that when you take ratios of quantities that have arbitrary zero points, the ratio no longer refers to the original units the quantities were expressed in. In particular, the magnitude of the ratio is entirely dependent on where you set the arbitrary zero point.
mensanator@aol.compost - 12 Nov 2006 17:37 GMT > > By simple arithmetic 15°F is indeed 3X warmer than 5°F -- I don't see > > why other scales and their intervals have to do with it. Sure, on [quoted text clipped - 15 lines] > at all, and 15 degrees F is 474 degrees higher than no heat at all. 474 > is 1.02 times 464, not three times. Ice doesn't melt at 0 degres F.
> Essentially, the problem is that when you take ratios of quantities that > have arbitrary zero points, the ratio no longer refers to the original > units the quantities were expressed in. In particular, the magnitude of > the ratio is entirely dependent on where you set the arbitrary zero > point. Odysseus - 13 Nov 2006 20:11 GMT <snip>
> > Nope, it's not hair-splitting. 5 degrees Farenheit doesn't mean "5 more > > degrees worth of heat than no heat at all"; it means "5 more degrees of [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > Ice doesn't melt at 0 degres F. True, but Fahrenheit's brine solution did. The point Eric is making doesn't depend on the substance and phase-change (or other phenomenon) that's chosen as a reference.
 Signature Odysseus
mensanator@aol.compost - 13 Nov 2006 20:54 GMT > <snip> > > > [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > doesn't depend on the substance and phase-change (or other phenomenon) > that's chosen as a reference. My point is that Eric's point can be lost if POW dismisses his argument because it contains a trivial error. It's just as easy to get these things right, you know.
Prisoner at War - 12 Nov 2006 17:46 GMT > Nope, it's not hair-splitting. 5 degrees Farenheit doesn't mean "5 more > degrees worth of heat than no heat at all"; it means "5 more degrees of > heat than are necessary to make ice melt." It takes 459 degrees worth of > heat to make ice melt, so 5 degrees F is 464 degrees higher than no heat > at all, and 15 degrees F is 474 degrees higher than no heat at all. 474 > is 1.02 times 464, not three times. What scale are you using?
In any case, I do believe I understand the issue of different 'numerical widths' given different scales, and different starting points and different referents for those starting points (one scale uses zero for the absolute lack of heat/motion [so does this mean time stops at this point??], another the freezing point of water, etc.).
BTW, I didn't mean "hair-splitting" in a perjorative way. Indeed, I'm hair-splitting myself here, insofar as I'm now requesting that quotidian terms like "warmer" be used more carefully by mathematicians (see my comment below).
> Essentially, the problem is that when you take ratios of quantities that > have arbitrary zero points, the ratio no longer refers to the original > units the quantities were expressed in. In particular, the magnitude of > the ratio is entirely dependent on where you set the arbitrary zero > point. I think I understand that -- it's just that, as far as the original statement went, to my way of thinking, 5 Fahrenheit is simply one-third the heat, as measured in Fahrenheit, of 15 Fahrenheit. But to casually say that "15F is not 3X warmer than 5F" is confusing if what you really mean is that "15F to 5F isn't the same 'numerical width' as its equalvent scores in Celsius of -15 and -9.4, respectively." That seems to have been what the Professor meant by his statements. It was just confusingly put. It reminds me of Ogden Nash's poem "Proessor Twist."
joetaxpayer - 13 Nov 2006 04:10 GMT > Nope, it's not hair-splitting. 5 degrees Farenheit doesn't mean "5 more > degrees worth of heat than no heat at all"; it means "5 more degrees of > heat than are necessary to make ice melt." You are thinking celius. Correct?
joetaxpayer - 13 Nov 2006 04:26 GMT >> Nope, it's not hair-splitting. 5 degrees Farenheit doesn't mean "5 >> more degrees worth of heat than no heat at all"; it means "5 more >> degrees of heat than are necessary to make ice melt." > > You are thinking celius. Correct? Uh, typo, celsius, of course.
Virgil - 12 Nov 2006 20:25 GMT > > Because if the assertion "I am twice as tall as my son" is true for some > > scale, then it remains true for any other scale that I use to measure [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > By simple arithmetic 15°F is indeed 3X warmer than 5°F -- I don't see > why other scales and their intervals have to do with it. That would be like measuring height as the number of cm taller than, say, 20 cm.
The "amount of heat" in a physical object is proportional to its absolute temperature, in, say, degrees Rankin (in which 1°R = 1°F).
A difference in temperature in °R is the same as the difference in temps in °F, but they have different 0 points.
0 °R = -459.67 °F, or 459.67 °R = 0 °F
15 °F = 474.67 °R 5 °F = 464.67 °R so 15°F is only about 2% "warmer" than 5 °F in absolute terms.
> Sure, on > other scales the same increase in temperature would post bigger or [quoted text clipped - 30 lines] > one little thing, I start babbling and wind up totally confused over > everything (like the ol' Blue Screen of Death in Windows, as you see). Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 01:30 GMT > That would be like measuring height as the number of cm taller than, > say, 20 cm. Hmm!
I'm sure there's a 3-blind-men-and-an-elephant thing going on here....
Okay, so, just as I was beginning to suspect, y'all (or at least you) are coming from an "absolutist" perspective (which I'd called "Platonic" elsewhere in this thread). Your height analogy proves that: you're thinking of heat in terms of absolute cold (the way you think of height in terms of a lack of height, which is obviously correct), whereas I'm merely thinking of heat in terms of whatever scale I'm using to measure heat.
So can I at least say, then, that "on the Fahrenheit scale, 15F is warmer, in degrees Fahrenheit, than 5F"??
> The "amount of heat" in a physical object is proportional to its > absolute temperature, in, say, degrees Rankin (in which 1°R = 1°F). What?!?! There's a Rankin scale, too???
Now if this doesn't prove the theory of parallel universes, I don't know what will!
How in heck is there so many scales to measure the one thing, heat??? I mean, okay, historically (as "Morrison" has so kindly pointed out elsewhere in this thread), various scales were used...but still, this is crazy, like if folks used different time clocks (carcadian, atomic, lunar, solar, whatever) to measure the same thing, time....
> A difference in temperature in °R is the same as the difference in temps > in °F, but they have different 0 points. Hmmm...!
> 0 °R = -459.67 °F, > or 459.67 °R = 0 °F > > 15 °F = 474.67 °R > 5 °F = 464.67 °R > so 15°F is only about 2% "warmer" than 5 °F in absolute terms. Aha! So you are an absolutist!
Semantics indeed!
No, I'm not trying to be cute here, I'm serious: so you guys have been critiquing "15F is 3X warmer than 5F" all along from some absolutist scale like Kelvin or, evidently, Rankin!
But, then, within Fahrenheit, wouldn't it make sense that "15F is 3X warmer than 5F" in the sense of, more strictly speaking, "15F is 3X warmer in Fahrenheit degrees than 5F"???
Virgil - 13 Nov 2006 04:20 GMT > > That would be like measuring height as the number of cm taller than, > > say, 20 cm. [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > whereas I'm merely thinking of heat in terms of whatever scale I'm > using to measure heat. To physicists ( of which I am not one) the heat of an object is the amount of a certain type of energy in that object, and the zero amount of that kind of energy coincides with the absolute zero of temperature scales. I tend to follow their thought processes imagining objects as containers of various amounts of heat energy proportional to, among other things, the temperatures of those objects.
> So can I at least say, then, that "on the Fahrenheit scale, 15F is > warmer, in degrees Fahrenheit, than 5F"?? [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > What?!?! There's a Rankin scale, too??? There are two degree sizes, that of Celsius and that of Fahrenheit. with 9/5 of one degree F equalling one degree C. The corresponding scales in which 0 means no heat energy at all are Kevlin and Rankin, with Kelvin degree size equal to Celsius degree size and Rankin degree size equal to fahrenheit degree size.
> Now if this doesn't prove the theory of parallel universes, I don't > know what will! [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > is crazy, like if folks used different time clocks (carcadian, atomic, > lunar, solar, whatever) to measure the same thing, time.... Why does the USA still cling to feet and pounds and acres and miles when the rest of the world has all gone metric?
> > A difference in temperature in °R is the same as the difference in temps > > in °F, but they have different 0 points. [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > > Aha! So you are an absolutist! In matters of relative temperatures, at. least, yes!
> Semantics indeed! > [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > warmer than 5F" in the sense of, more strictly speaking, "15F is 3X > warmer in Fahrenheit degrees than 5F"??? How many "times" warmer is 15°F that -15°F ?
Michael Press - 18 Nov 2006 00:16 GMT In article <virgil-EA9713.21205112112006@comcast.dca.giganews.com> ,
> To physicists ( of which I am not one) the heat of an object is the > amount of a certain type of energy in that object, and the zero amount > of that kind of energy coincides with the absolute zero of temperature > scales. I tend to follow their thought processes imagining objects as > containers of various amounts of heat energy proportional to, among > other things, the temperatures of those objects. Actually, physicists do not think of objects as containers of heat, since heat is not a state variable; not an exact differential. This is the mathematical reason that the phlogiston theory is untenable.
 Signature Michael Press
Weatherlawyer - 15 Nov 2006 14:29 GMT > >>From the famous Vassar Stats text at > > <http://departments.vassar.edu/~lowry/webtext.html>: 5°F and 15°F to Celsius degrees to see what I mean.
> Besides, the question at the subject of your post should have the > numbers 5 and 15 exchanged. > > Best regards, And not only is he confused by 5 and 15, he has mixed heat and temperature.
For example all red hot objects begin to glow cherry red at the same temperature but the amount of heat required to raise different matter to that temperature are very different.
Prisoner at War - 15 Nov 2006 16:36 GMT > And not only is he confused by 5 and 15, he has mixed heat and > temperature. Well invent a "spell-check for numbers" and I'll run it next time.
> For example all red hot objects begin to glow cherry red at the same > temperature but the amount of heat required to raise different matter > to that temperature are very different. I'd assumed temperature was a measure of heat. But thanks to these discussions, I see the distinction now.
joetaxpayer - 15 Nov 2006 16:51 GMT > For example all red hot objects begin to glow cherry red at the same > temperature but the amount of heat required to raise different matter > to that temperature are very different. And how you can astound your family by pulling something out of a 425 degree oven with no oven mitts. As long as it's on a piece of tin foil, unfolded, so no trapped liquid, and a nice size piece of foil to hold on to. The heat contained in the foil is low enough to be absorbed into your hands without burning you. JOE
Barry Grouper - 12 Nov 2006 16:24 GMT Q) Please Explain: How Is 5°F ***NOT*** Three Times Warmer Than 15°F????
A) You're a google-poster.
Prisoner at War - 12 Nov 2006 18:00 GMT > Q) Please Explain: How Is 5°F ***NOT*** Three Times Warmer Than 15°F???? > > A) You're a google-poster. LOL
Actually, the correct answer may be that I have brain damage. Um, long story, but as capable as I am in other areas, when it comes to math, especially involving fractions and negative numbers, it's like my mind just...I don't know...stops. Like, it just stops. Not "stop working," but simply stops.
Sigh. I hope it's simply a matter of practice.
Reef Fish - 12 Nov 2006 23:15 GMT > Q) Please Explain: How Is 5°F ***NOT*** Three Times Warmer Than 15°F???? > > A) You're a google-poster. More accurately, A) You're are a newsgroup troll.
Barry, we're not distant cousins, are we? You are the first Grouper I've seen in newsgroups besides my alias-groupers.
I see that Prisoner has successfully reeled in many species of catch from her troll, from those who nitpicked "warmer" and "colder" to those who relied on actual examples converted to F or C to show that differences do not convert to ratio without a meaningful scale relative some an absolute scale -- all failing to break the troll line.
My answer to the question on the SUBJECT line is this (making use of the explanation Prisoner quoted from her Vasser prof:
VP> the Kelvin scale, whose zero point does mark an absolute zero VP> level of temperature.
Since Kelvin has an absolute zero, relative to that RATIO scale, 15 degrees K is 3 times as warm as 5 degrees K, and 2 times warmer, as one of the trolled victims bought back.
BUT, 5 degrees F is INFINITELY (on a ratio scale) warmer than 0 degree Kelvin! So is 15 degrees F. Therefore, you have two different temperatures that are both infinitely warmer than O degree K, one cannot be three times warmer or three times colder than the other! infinity IS infinity, in mathematics, the omnipotent God of mathematics: You add 5 to infinity, you get infinity. You subtract 15 from infinity, you get infinity.
You add one googol (not Google), which is 1 followed by 100 zeros, to infinity, you still have only infinity. Add one googolplex to infinity, you get infinity right back.
So, dear trolled beloved and friends and victimes of the Prisoner at War, that is the TRUE reason that NOBODY can tell whether one temperature is colder or warmer than another, because whether you measure it in Fahrenheit or Centigrade, or in BTU, each corresponds to SOME temperature in Kelvin, but all of them are infinitely warmer than absolute zero!
Q.E.D. Quack Endeth Duck.
-- Reef Fish Bob.
Paul {Hamilton Rooney} - 13 Nov 2006 00:27 GMT >BUT, 5 degrees F is INFINITELY (on a ratio scale) warmer than 0 >degree Kelvin! Really? 5 divided by 0 is not infinity these days. It is undefined.
Reef Fish - 13 Nov 2006 00:50 GMT > >BUT, 5 degrees F is INFINITELY (on a ratio scale) warmer than 0 > >degree Kelvin! > > Really? 5 divided by 0 is not infinity these days. It is undefined. What IS infinity these days, Paul?
0 divided by 0 is undefined, 5/0 is still plus infinity, in my book.
-- Reef Fish Bob.
Paul {Hamilton Rooney} - 13 Nov 2006 01:00 GMT >> >BUT, 5 degrees F is INFINITELY (on a ratio scale) warmer than 0 >> >degree Kelvin! [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > >0 divided by 0 is undefined, No. It's indeterminate.
>5/0 is still plus infinity, in my book. Then your book is out of date.
Reef Fish - 13 Nov 2006 01:20 GMT > >> >BUT, 5 degrees F is INFINITELY (on a ratio scale) warmer than 0 > >> >degree Kelvin! [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > > No. It's indeterminate. If an infinite sequence oscillates between +1 and -1, then the limit of the sequence is indeterminate.
+inifnitity is the limit of 5/t as t ---> zero.
0/ t as t ---> zero is undefined.
> >5/0 is still plus infinity, in my book. > > Then your book is out of date. It may be out of print, but is "dated", so how can it be out of date?
:-) Now Prisoner at War may come back and argued that "dated" means 'out of date', and that's why the English language is a perfect language for trolling.
Paul {Hamilton Rooney} - 13 Nov 2006 01:26 GMT >> >> >BUT, 5 degrees F is INFINITELY (on a ratio scale) warmer than 0 >> >> >degree Kelvin! [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > >0/ t as t ---> zero is undefined. "What is the value of 0/0? (Is it really undefined or are there an infinite number of values?)
There's a special word for stuff like this, where you could conceivably give it any number of values. That word is "indeterminate." It's not the same as undefined. It essentially means that if it pops up somewhere, you don't know what its value will be in your case. For instance, if you have the limit as x->0 of x/x and of 7x/x, the expression will have a value of 1 in the first case and 7 in the second case. Indeterminate."
http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.divideby0.html
>> >5/0 is still plus infinity, in my book. >> [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] >language >for trolling. Plato would have managed just fine in Greek.
Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 01:35 GMT > It may be out of print, but is "dated", so how can it be out of date? > :-) [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > language > for trolling. What's with the accusation of trolling? You almost sound like you're jealous; this is the second time you've mentioned it. If my problems don't interest you, please start your own thread. I don't see why you should hijack this one and yet accuse me of trolling -- and by implication accuse the others of being suckers.
Paul {Hamilton Rooney} - 13 Nov 2006 01:45 GMT >> It may be out of print, but is "dated", so how can it be out of date? >> :-) [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] >should hijack this one and yet accuse me of trolling -- and by >implication accuse the others of being suckers. Perhaps we are enjoying ourselves?
Reef Fish - 13 Nov 2006 06:07 GMT > > It may be out of print, but is "dated", so how can it be out of date? > > :-) [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > What's with the accusation of trolling? Because it was so obvious, so blatent. An undergrad at Vasser displays the mentality of Pow-Wow junior community college is bad enough with the initial troll; but to continue the troll with each lucid exposition by the trollee, your continued troll just became every clearer with each post.
Elementary, Prisoner.
> You almost sound like you're > jealous; this is the second time you've mentioned it. Why should I be jealous of a troll who is so blatently obvious? A seasoned troll would be much more subtle with the trolls.
> If my problems > don't interest you, please start your own thread. I don't see why you > should hijack this one and yet accuse me of trolling -- and by > implication accuse the others of being suckers. Your confession of a troll is manifested by your use of "hijacked" when I responded to the absurdity in your troll with something even more absurd, and you are devastated that your troll had been exposed and accused me of "hijacking" it.
You are presumptious in thinking "the others" are all suckers. Some of them may be. Others are just stringing YOU along with your troll line and making fun of YOU.
That's the worst fate for a troll -- worse than death -- to turn from a troll to be the trollee.
As Paul says, "Perhaps we are enjoying ourselves? "
I certainly am, watching the poor Troll jumping from one trollee to the next, in 6 different direction, each time trying to play "Dumb and Dumber", not realizing some of the lines were trolling back at the Prisoner, like Jaw's revenge. :)
Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 06:44 GMT Dude, you need to learn how to read. Hint: I'm not a Vassar undergrad.
Glad you enjoy this. But if you think this is fun, you might try going to the movies once in a while. With someone.
Good luck.
Good-bye.
Good riddance!
> Because it was so obvious, so blatent. An undergrad at Vasser > displays the mentality of Pow-Wow junior community college is [quoted text clipped - 25 lines] > "Dumb and Dumber", not realizing some of the lines were > trolling back at the Prisoner, like Jaw's revenge. :) Lou Pecora - 13 Nov 2006 16:20 GMT > If an infinite sequence oscillates between +1 and -1, then the > limit of the sequence is indeterminate. Irrelvevant here.
> +inifnitity is the limit of 5/t as t ---> zero. That's a limit value by definition, meaning 5/t can be made larger than any number anyone would choose just by picking t small enough. It is not, however, a number.
> 0/ t as t ---> zero is undefined. -- Lou Pecora (my views are my own) REMOVE THIS to email me.
Brett Magill - 13 Nov 2006 21:32 GMT On 12 Nov 2006 16:50:36 -0800, "Reef Fish" <large_nassua_grouper@yahoo.com>
> If an infinite sequence oscillates between +1 and -1, then the > limit of the sequence is indeterminate. [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > 5/0 is still plus infinity, in my book. And earlier wrote...
>infinity IS infinity, in mathematics, the omnipotent God of >mathematics: You add 5 to infinity, you get infinity. >You subtract 15 from infinity, you get > >infinity. You add one googol (not Google), which is 1 followed by 100 >zeros, to infinity, you still have only infinity. Add one >googolplex to infinity, you get infinity >right back. I think between the two of those statements there is a solution for world hunger. So we divide a fish by zero people and we end up with an infinite number of fish. I take it that infinity divided by 6,556,742,150 (as of 21:30 GMT EST+5 Nov 13, 2006) is also infinity. The Nobel committee will be contacting you soon, I am certain. : )
mensanator@aol.compost - 13 Nov 2006 22:05 GMT > On 12 Nov 2006 16:50:36 -0800, "Reef Fish" > <large_nassua_grouper@yahoo.com> [quoted text clipped - 18 lines] > 6,556,742,150 (as of 21:30 GMT EST+5 Nov 13, 2006) is also infinity. > The Nobel committee will be contacting you soon, I am certain. : ) But there is no Nobel Prize for mathematics.
And don't think you can sneak in through the Economics backdoor when all the fishermen in the world lose their livelyhoods.
Michael Press - 18 Nov 2006 00:25 GMT In article <1163455518.791723.247890@b28g2000cwb.googlegroups.com> ,
> > On 12 Nov 2006 16:50:36 -0800, "Reef Fish" > > <large_nassua_grouper@yahoo.com> [quoted text clipped - 23 lines] > And don't think you can sneak in through the Economics backdoor > when all the fishermen in the world lose their livelyhoods. Besides, there is not a Nobel prize for economics either.
 Signature Michael Press
Charles Metz - 18 Nov 2006 00:36 GMT --snip--
> Besides, there is not a Nobel prize for economics either. Quite a few people here at The University of Chicago will be surprised to learn that.
Charles Metz
Michael Press - 18 Nov 2006 01:53 GMT > --snip-- > > Besides, there is not a Nobel prize for economics either. > > Quite a few people here at The University of Chicago will be surprised > to learn that. "The whole of my remaining realizable estate shall be dealt with in the following way: The capital shall be invested by my executors in safe securities and shall constitute a fund, the interest on which shall be annually distributed in the form of prizes to those who, during the preceding year, shall have conferred the greatest benefit on mankind. The said interest shall be divided into five equal parts, which shall be apportioned as follows: one part to the person who shall have made the most important discovery or invention within the field of physics; one part to the person who shall have made the most important chemical discovery or improvement; one part to the person who shall have made the most important discovery within the domain of physiology or medicine; one part to the person who shall have produced in the field of literature the most outstanding work of an idealistic tendency; and one part to the person who shall have done the most or the best work for fraternity among nations, for the abolition or reduction of standing armies and for the holding and promotion of peace congresses. The prizes for physics and chemistry shall be awarded by the Swedish Academy of Sciences; that for physiological or medical works by the Caroline Institute in Stockholm; that for literature by the Academy in Stockholm; and that for champions of peace by a committee of five persons to be elected by the Norwegian Storting. It is my express wish that in awarding the prizes no consideration whatever shall be given to the nationality of the candidates, so that the most worthy shall receive the prize, whether he be Scandinavian or not." -- Alfred Nobel
You are probably thinking of the Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel instituted and funded by the Bank of Sweden in 1968.
 Signature Michael Press
ronin_iyo@yahoo.com - 18 Nov 2006 05:44 GMT simple, because ?F isn?t an absoluta scale.
alen Isenhart u#440483
my game: http://uc1.gamestotal.com/?tft=de53
Reef Fish - 13 Nov 2006 23:33 GMT > On 12 Nov 2006 16:50:36 -0800, "Reef Fish" > <large_nassua_grouper@yahoo.com> > > If an infinite sequence oscillates between +1 and -1, then the > > limit of the sequence is indeterminate. > > > > +inifnitity is the limit of 5/t as t ---> zero. Unlike some pedants who thinks 5/0 means 5 times the reciprocal of zero (as the only mathematics they know are those in some spreadsheet) the concept of a LIMIT of a sequence is the key concept here.
> > 0/ t as t ---> zero is undefined. > > [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > world hunger. So we divide a fish by zero people and we end up with an > infinite number of fish. No, that would be a misapplication of the concept of a LIMIT. It's still one fish, but the fish can be measured as an arbitrily large number of bits of fish relative to the scale of ABSOLUTE zero of Fish (which is the amount of fish left over from the sermon by Jesus in the biblical days.
> I take it that infinity divided by > 6,556,742,150 (as of 21:30 GMT EST+5 Nov 13, 2006) is also infinity. > The Nobel committee will be contacting you soon, I am certain. : ) You are very perceptive man, Brett! The Nobel Committee had already contacting me, with my former colleagues at Chicago, Friedman et al, to ask me to co-author a paper with an economist so that we can both receive the Nobel Prize because Nobel is still hold a grudge against that mathematician who messed with his wife. The Nobel committee were as pedantic as you are, Brett.
But when I explained to them that the world hunger would be solved by (1 fish)/t as t ---> 0, only when the people that make up the world population shrink into pieces of epsilon size -- at which point, they withdrew the Nobel offer, because none of them knew how big epsilon was, whereas EVERY mathematician knows what epsilon is or how big it is!!
I think the Nobel committee came looking for me only because they hadn't been to Shanghai before, and used me as their excuse for some free travel. :-)
BTW, speaking of mathematicians, God, and epsilon, the greatest mathematician of the last century is said to be Paul Erdos. Erdos has a set of vocabulary for various things you and I don't use. For Erdos, God is SF (do your own research on what his SF means) and "epsilon" is what Erdos calls all children.
-- Reef Fish Bob.
Reef Fish - 14 Nov 2006 01:21 GMT > > On 12 Nov 2006 16:50:36 -0800, "Reef Fish" > > <large_nassua_grouper@yahoo.com> [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > zero (as the only mathematics they know are those in some spreadsheet) > the concept of a LIMIT of a sequence is the key concept here.
> > I think between the two of those statements there is a solution for > > world hunger. So we divide a fish by zero people and we end up with an [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > receive the Nobel Prize because Nobel is still hold a grudge against > that mathematician who messed with his wife. When I wrote that paragraph, all I could think of (among the 23 Nobel prize winners in economics that came from the U of Chicago) was Milton Friedman! Actually, Milton was a better statistician than he was an economists, but economists are so gullible and so easy to fool. :-)
Milton Friedman was the statistical mentor of Jimmie Savage and Fred Mosteller during the "Think Tank" era of the 1940s when Friedman was heading a team of the Who's Who in statistics. In the memorial volume of L.J.Savage, Fred Mosteller related the story that he and Jimmy Savage worked VERY hard on a statistical report to be reviewed by their supervisor Milton Friedman, and Milton sent them back to re-write, listing well over 100 points that needed to be re-worked!
Jimmie and Fred worked all night and picked out 100 points to do battle against Friedman, and as Fred put it, Friedman was right on 80 of those and the other 20 was more a matter of opinion than right or wrong, and furthermore, Friedman pointed them to some books to learn how to write better. :-) Mosteller and Savage had since developed unmistable writing styles of their own.
Milton Friedman was better known for his most INSIGNIFICANT statistical contribution, the Friedman nonparametric ANOVA test.
Of the other Chicago Nobel econ lauriates, I was actually contemporary colleagues with 5 of them during my 6 years at Chicago. These include Milton Friedman, George Stigler, father of the more famous statistician Steve Stigler, Mert Miller who was a professor of finance rather than economics when he won the econ Nobel; then there were Myron Scholes, Herb Simon, and others who were more in Operations Research areas than economics itself.
But i didn't know there were 23 of them with Chicago affiliation until I saw it on this page:
http://www-news.uchicago.edu/resources/nobel/
As I had always said, Nobel winners at Chicago are dime a dozen! :-)
-- Reef Fish Bob.
> I think the Nobel committee came looking for me only because they > hadn't been to Shanghai before, and used me as their excuse for [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > > -- Reef Fish Bob. Brett Magill - 14 Nov 2006 18:43 GMT > BTW, speaking of mathematicians, God, and epsilon, the greatest > mathematician of the last century is said to be Paul Erdos. Erdos [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > -- Reef Fish Bob. I am not privy to the idiosyncrasies of Erdos' vocabulary, outside of what I could find quickly on Wikipedia. What I do know is that there is a convincing argument that google is as close as we will get to experiencing a god [http://www.thechurchofgoogle.org/].
So, at the encouragement of Douglas Adams, I asked google the obvious question. You should too:
[http://www.google.com/search?hl=en&sa=X&oi=spell&resnum=0&ct=result&cd=1&q=the+a nswer+to+life+the+universe+and+everything&spell=1]
Alas, the answer is an integer, not an infinitesimal.
Reef Fish - 15 Nov 2006 00:35 GMT > > BTW, speaking of mathematicians, God, and epsilon, the greatest > > mathematician of the last century is said to be Paul Erdos. Erdos [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > is a convincing argument that google is as close as we will get to > experiencing a god [http://www.thechurchofgoogle.org/]. So, you did get Erdos's SF or "Supreme Fascist" from Wikipedia, but are afraid to spell it out? :-) This page explains only in part the SF.
http://primehead.com/erdos/erdos_bio.html
PE> "The SF created us to enjoy suffering," Erdos said. "The sooner PE> we die, the sooner we defy His plans."
Here are some of Erdos's vocabulary:
$> * SF - Supreme Fascist/God. Erdos had his own vocabulary. $> Epsilons/Children, Bosses/Woman, Slaves/Men, Captured/Married $> Men, Liberated/Divorced Men, Poison/Alcoholic Drinks, Noise/Music.
$> The SF was allways responsible for hiding Erdos glasses, visas $> and other stuff, when Erdos didn?t found what he was looking for.
$> Specially was The SF responsible for not letting Erdos see the elegant $> solutions to many mathematical problems.
Below is the greatest compliment Erdos gave to the SF:
PE> I?m always saying that the SF* has this transfinite Book that PE> contains the best proofs of all mathematical theorems, proofs PE> that are elegant and perfect." The strongest compliment Erdos PE> gave to a collegue?s work was to say, "It?s straight from the Book."
> So, at the encouragement of Douglas Adams, I asked google the obvious > question. You should too: > > [http://www.google.com/search?hl=en&sa=X&oi=spell&resnum=0&ct=result&cd=1&q=the+a nswer+to+life+the+universe+and+everything&spell=1] Can't get this page from my IE browser.
> Alas, the answer is an integer, not an infinitesimal. Are you playing Jeapardy that I have to guess the Question? :-)
"What is the collection that is countable but no one has ever succeeded or finished counting it, not even the SF?" The infinitesimals will be uncountable. Howzat?
-- Reef Fish Bob.
Brett Magill - 15 Nov 2006 02:14 GMT > > So, at the encouragement of Douglas Adams, I asked google the obvious > > question. You should too: [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > > Are you playing Jeapardy that I have to guess the Question? :-) LOL. No, the question was in the link. Too bad it did not work for you. Type this into google, exactly, and press search, no quotes...
the answer to life the universe and everything
> "What is the collection that is countable but no one has ever > succeeded or finished counting it, not even the SF?" The > infinitesimals will be uncountable. Howzat? > > -- Reef Fish Bob. Random832 - 14 Nov 2006 18:53 GMT 2006-11-13 <1163460820.459713.10120@i42g2000cwa.googlegroups.com>,
>> On 12 Nov 2006 16:50:36 -0800, "Reef Fish" >> <large_nassua_grouper@yahoo.com> [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > zero (as the only mathematics they know are those in some spreadsheet) > the concept of a LIMIT of a sequence is the key concept here. -infinity is the limit of 5/t as t approaches zero from the left. both are equally valid interpretations of "5/0"
Lou Pecora - 13 Nov 2006 16:17 GMT > What IS infinity these days, Paul? > > 0 divided by 0 is undefined, 5/0 is still plus infinity, in my book. > > -- Reef Fish Bob. But not in any mathematician's book.
5/0 really means 5 X 1/0 where 1/0=0^-1, that is it is the multiplicative inverse of 0. But such an inverse cannot exist in the number system or you get contradictions and, thus, an inconsistent mathematical system. In such a system you can prove that any number is equal to any other.
-- Lou Pecora (my views are my own) REMOVE THIS to email me.
Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 00:56 GMT > Really? 5 divided by 0 is not infinity these days. It is undefined. That's another thing: why is division by zero undefined? (And isn't it possible to do so in some higher math, like what they managed with the imaginary number "i" [square root of negative two]?)
To me, if I have a pizza pie and I divide it zero times -- which is to say, I don't divide it at all -- I still have one pizza pie "left over." So division by zero seems like it should simply be the thing itself, what multiplication by one is.
Which I don't understand either, if I were to take the linguistics seriously: I have one pie. I multiply it one time. I still have one pie. How was there any "multiplication"?? That word connotes "increase" to me, but obviously there's been no increase here. Even more astounding, multiplying something zero times results in zero! If I have a pie, and multiply it by zero -- which is to say, I don't multiply it at all, right? -- how does my pie now disappear and I'm left with no pie???
I know all this sounds very stupid, but I can't help but wonder. The language just doesn't make sense to me.
David Winsemius - 13 Nov 2006 14:15 GMT >> Really? 5 divided by 0 is not infinity these days. It is undefined. > [quoted text clipped - 18 lines] > I know all this sounds very stupid, but I can't help but wonder. The > language just doesn't make sense to me. I will admit that there were short periods in the past when I stared at the word "that" and tried to figure out what it meant. But I didn't stop people on the street and ask them for help.
This mathematical tangentiality after remaining obtuse about the idea that some physical scales were more accurate representations of energy content than others certainly looks like trolling to me. Now you are taking on basic math and trying to reduce it to grade school standards by demanding that every "word problem" fit a mathematical concept. If you know that some of these newsgroups welcome this sort of thing then practice a little netizenship and trim your headers.
 Signature David Winsemius
Lou Pecora - 13 Nov 2006 16:23 GMT > That's another thing: why is division by zero undefined? (And isn't it > possible to do so in some higher math, like what they managed with the > imaginary number "i" [square root of negative two]?) No. Allowing 1/0 to be a number gives you a mathematical system which is inconsistent. Then you can prove and disprove the same thing. So you can't consistently define division by zero and still have mathematics in the sense we know it -- as a logical system.
-- Lou Pecora (my views are my own) REMOVE THIS to email me.
David R Tribble - 13 Nov 2006 16:41 GMT Prisoner at War wrote:
>> That's another thing: why is division by zero undefined? (And isn't it >> possible to do so in some higher math, like what they managed with the >> imaginary number "i" [square root of negative two]?)
> No. Allowing 1/0 to be a number gives you a mathematical system which > is inconsistent. Then you can prove and disprove the same thing. So > you can't consistently define division by zero and still have > mathematics in the sense we know it -- as a logical system. That's not entriely true. You can add oo and a/0 to the reals to produce the "projective real line", an extension of the real number system: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_projective_line
Likewise, you can add -oo and +oo to the set of reals to get the "extended real line": http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extended_real_number_line
But you are correct by saying that you can't define 1/0 to be a real number that is consistent with the standard reals.
Lou Pecora - 13 Nov 2006 17:42 GMT > > No. Allowing 1/0 to be a number gives you a mathematical system which > > is inconsistent. Then you can prove and disprove the same thing. So [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > system: > http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_projective_line Yes, thanks for that reference. Of course, as the article points out you loose some properties of the numbers (e.g. order) which is what this thread is (partly) about.
> Likewise, you can add -oo and +oo to the set of reals to get > the "extended real line": > http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extended_real_number_line Thanks. I forgot about that use of the word infinity in measure theory.
One can also add infinities to the real number system in the archemedian (sp?) sense that they are larger than any standard number. Doing so consistently produces Nonstandard Analysis, but in that system, too, 1/0 is not defined.
I think one has to be careful since the word infinity (or the symbol oo) has many meanings in mathematics and quantities that capture behavior like we imagine of an infinity can be added to number systems to produce interesting and useful new systems, but they can't get around basic contradictions.
> But you are correct by saying that you can't define 1/0 to be > a real number that is consistent with the standard reals. -- Lou Pecora (my views are my own) REMOVE THIS to email me.
Gamma - 15 Nov 2006 00:57 GMT > > That's another thing: why is division by zero undefined? (And isn't it > > possible to do so in some higher math, like what they managed with the > > imaginary number "i" [square root of negative two]?) Square root of negative one
Odysseus - 13 Nov 2006 20:27 GMT > > Really? 5 divided by 0 is not infinity these days. It is undefined. > > That's another thing: why is division by zero undefined? (And isn't it > possible to do so in some higher math, like what they managed with the > imaginary number "i" [square root of negative two]?) The square root of -2 is about 1.41i; i is the square root of -1.
 Signature Odysseus
Prisoner at War - 15 Nov 2006 16:45 GMT > > That's another thing: why is division by zero undefined? (And isn't it > > possible to do so in some higher math, like what they managed with the [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > -- > Odysseus Ah, good catch; many thanks for the correction!
Anyway, my problem was "linguistic" (or, more precisely, semantic) in nature, which someone else had caught on to and went to clarify thus: "y/x" means y objects placed into x groups. "6/2" means "6 objects placed into 2 groups," which results in 3 objects per group. "6/0" means, however, "6 objects placed into 0 groups" -- and it is not possible to split 6 objects into no groups at all when division inherently means split-into-groups.
Likewise my confusion over something like "0x3." Now "0x3" is just "0+0+0" or "zero added three times," which I perfectly understand, but, reasoning analogously, what is "3x0" -- what is three added zero times??? Well -- and this I figured out on my own -- insofar as "6x2" means "6 instances of 2 objects" (or "2 instances of 6 objects"), "3x0" can be thought of as "3 instances of no objects" (or "no instances of 3 objects")! Thus it isn't "three objects added no times" but "three instances of no objects" or "no instances of three objects!"
Thanks to all who have replied and helped me think through the semantics involved. Now I really know what these things *mean*! On to imaginary numbers! =)
Oh, BTW, I thought this interesting...I bet you this is the start of a trend...I should be in derivatives, futures, and hedge funds: I seem to have a nose for these things, insofar as I myself am Exhibit A:
"No, Really, You Don't Understand -- I'm A Math Moron"
http://www.slate.com/id/2152480/nav/tap1/
Gamma - 16 Nov 2006 05:22 GMT > > The square root of -2 is about 1.41 Hmmm
Odysseus - 19 Nov 2006 03:05 GMT <snip empty attribution>
> > > The square root of -2 is about 1.41 > > Hmmm That is not what I wrote; the first character you trimmed was essential to my meaning. "The square root of -2 is about 1.41i; ..." meaning i with a coefficient of about 1.41. I hope mere carelessness was the cause, but what are you hmmm-ing about?
 Signature Odysseus
Gamma - 19 Nov 2006 07:33 GMT > <snip empty attribution> > [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > with a coefficient of about 1.41. I hope mere carelessness was the > cause, but what are you hmmm-ing about? There is no such real number as the square root of MINUS two.
Paul {Hamilton Rooney} - 19 Nov 2006 08:29 GMT >> <snip empty attribution> >> [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > >There is no such real number as the square root of MINUS two. And this is relevant to your hmmm-ing how?
Reef Fish - 19 Nov 2006 12:54 GMT > > <snip empty attribution> > > There is no such real number as the square root of MINUS two. In future follow-ups to this thread please OMIT the cross-posting to sci.stat.math.
Your TROLL is not even on topic.
The square root of MINUS two is complex and imaginary -- just like your
real existence, okay?
-- Reef Fish Bob.
Pubkeybreaker - 13 Nov 2006 14:21 GMT infinity IS infinity, in mathematics, the omnipotent God of
> mathematics: You add 5 to infinity, you get infinity. You subtract > 15 from infinity, you get infinity. Now you are acting like a troll. Infinity is not a real number. One can not do ordinary arithmetic with it, so your discussion of "add 5 to infinity" is meaningless pseudo-babble.
Bob - 12 Nov 2006 17:21 GMT >>From the famous Vassar Stats text at ><http://departments.vassar.edu/~lowry/webtext.html>: [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] >such as the Kelvin scale, whose zero point does mark an absolute zero >level of temperature. That is well stated!
In addition to Jose's reply, think about what happens with -5 deg F and -15 deg F. -15 deg F is "three times" the first temperature -- but it is colder. Or what if we had -5 and +5? Or -5 and zero? These are not "explanations", but are examples to make it clearer that you cannot take ratios on the F (or C) scales -- because they do not have a proper zero, meaning "nothing".
This is an important issue in chemistry or physics, where one really does want meaningful ratios of temperatures. To do that, the Kelvin (absolute) scale is used. The key point of that scale is that 0 K means "nothing".
bob
Prisoner at War - 12 Nov 2006 17:57 GMT > That is well stated! > > In addition to Jose's reply, think about what happens with -5 deg F > and -15 deg F. -15 deg F is "three times" the first temperature -- but > it is colder. I'm still leery of arithmetic operations on negative numbers myself, precisely due to things like that. Too weird when you translate it into everyday language.
> Or what if we had -5 and +5? Or -5 and zero? These are > not "explanations", but are examples to make it clearer that you > cannot take ratios on the F (or C) scales -- because they do not have > a proper zero, meaning "nothing". And that's another psychological stumbling block for me -- if zero is nothing, then how can there be negative numbers at all? What sense is there in speaking of something that is less than nothing (seems a bit like claiming that infinity is smaller than infinity-plus-one!). Yes yes I understand negative balances and deficits, sure, but in terms of so-called "real" numbers, why, negative numbers seem as made up to me as the imaginary number "i" (square root of negative two).
> This is an important issue in chemistry or physics, where one really > does want meaningful ratios of temperatures. To do that, the Kelvin > (absolute) scale is used. The key point of that scale is that 0 K > means "nothing". Hmm! Now that's interesting...how did scientists come up with such scales as F and C in the first place, then? Whatever is the point, then, if they're so, well, useless....
> bob Prisoner at War - 12 Nov 2006 18:08 GMT > And that's another psychological stumbling block for me -- if zero is > nothing, then how can there be negative numbers at all? What sense is [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > so-called "real" numbers, why, negative numbers seem as made up to me > as the imaginary number "i" (square root of negative two). And another thing: how is zero a "number" at all?? It's just nothing. How the heck is "nothing" a "number"??
Artists say that "black" isn't, technically speaking, a "color," but that it is the complete absence of color. That's how I think of zero. And partly why so-called negative numbers seem incredibly arbitrary to me.
Which of course it all is, right, since these are just ideas humanity has made up.
I really do hope it gets easier with practice. Yes yes, I've been through kindergarten and primary school. Believe it or not, I was typically in the top 25 percentile when it came to math and arithmetic, even in college. But I have no idea what the heck I'm doing. I'm just memorizing algorithms to apply in recognizable situations. But I've never really had much of an idea why. And simple things like this stuff that we talk about still trip me up if I think about it.
Bob - 13 Nov 2006 04:32 GMT >> This is an important issue in chemistry or physics, where one really >> does want meaningful ratios of temperatures. To do that, the Kelvin [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] >scales as F and C in the first place, then? Whatever is the point, >then, if they're so, well, useless.... In the case of Mr F, he set zero as the lowest T he could achieve. I am not sure if he knew that lower T were possible. Mr C set zero as the freezing point of water, for convenience.
I dont think that either of them had any understanding of what a true zero for T might be. That idea came relatively late. That is, T scales were developed for practical use before T was well understood.
When the idea of a true T zero was understood, indeed a scale based on it was developed (Kelvin). But in common usage, it really doesnt matter which scale we use, so the world in general does not use K. I do understand the colloquial usage of "3 times hotter". It has no real significance, but at least we all "understand" what one is saying. But even that only works if both values are positive.
Although you posted your Q to a math group, I dont think the math is really the key issue here. It is the understanding of T, which comes from physics. T is simply a more complex property than is, say, length (or bank balance). I know that the nature of T has been discussed in other parts of this thread.
bob
Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 06:24 GMT > In the case of Mr F, he set zero as the lowest T he could achieve. I > am not sure if he knew that lower T were possible. Mr C set zero as [quoted text clipped - 18 lines] > > bob That's very interesting. If nothing else, I've learned from all this that "temperature" isn't what I'd thought it was! Thanks. I imagine that's a big part of the problem here: folks are using a scientific notion of temperature to answer my question which is based on a lay understanding of temperature. Semantics, as usual!
drmwecker@gmail.com - 12 Nov 2006 19:39 GMT It's the language.
First, you have 5 and 15 reversed.
Second, 15 is three times as warm, but two times warmer.
OK?
Dr. Michael W. Ecker Associate Professor of Mathematics Pennsylvania State University Wilkes-Barre Campus Lehman, PA 18627
> >From the famous Vassar Stats text at > <http://departments.vassar.edu/~lowry/webtext.html>: [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > such as the Kelvin scale, whose zero point does mark an absolute zero > level of temperature. Prisoner at War - 12 Nov 2006 19:56 GMT > It's the language. > [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > Wilkes-Barre Campus > Lehman, PA 18627 Hmm! Three times *as* warm, but two times warm-er...but the Professor at Vassar explicitly states that "it makes no sense at all to conclude that the second day is three times as warm as the first-because the zero point from which 5°F and 15°F are starting out is only an arbitrary marker on a scale that potentially extends all the way down to about -460°F. In order to make such ratio judgments concerning temperatures we would have to use a scale, such as the Kelvin scale, whose zero point does mark an absolute zero level of temperature."
It is indeed the language (hence the x-post to alt.english.usage), and another thing I don't understand is what a "ratio judgment" is...how is the difference between 5F and 15F a "ratio judgment"???
[Mr.] Lynn Kurtz - 13 Nov 2006 01:50 GMT >> It's the language. >> [quoted text clipped - 22 lines] >another thing I don't understand is what a "ratio judgment" is...how is >the difference between 5F and 15F a "ratio judgment"??? Perhaps Dr. Ecker replied too quickly. Some of us sometimes do that.
:-) I have another thought to add to your confusion. Suppose you have an iron brick. In Physics you talk about the relation between its temperature and the amount of heat it contains. It's been eons since I sat in a Physics class, but with appropriate units, the amout of heat in, for example, calories = (specific heat of iron) times (temperature). Of course, for there to be no heat in the brick, its temperature must be 0 degrees Kelvin. Now suppose the brick is at 2 degrees F. (It has added a lot of heat because its temperature has been raised from -460F). Does it seem to you that raising it from 2 to 4 degrees F should double its heat? Hopefully not. The first change of temperature was 462 degrees F and the second 2 degrees F. No comparison in the change it its amount of heat.
--Lynn
Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 02:33 GMT > Perhaps Dr. Ecker replied too quickly. Some of us sometimes do that. > :-) Yes -- that's how I'd originally reversed 15F and 5F in the subject line!
> I have another thought to add to your confusion. Suppose you have an > iron brick. In Physics you talk about the relation between its > temperature and the amount of heat it contains. It's been eons since I > sat in a Physics class, but with appropriate units, the amout of heat > in, for example, calories = (specific heat of iron) times > (temperature). Whoa! Wait a minute, that's right...calories...that's a measure of heat, too! Wait, so what's temperature measuring, exactly? They both measure heat? Why two measures of heat for the one object? Or is "calories", more strictly speaking, the measure of the expenditure of heat -- the measure of heat loss, as opposed to a "steady state" of heat, like "temperature"?
Anyway, I digress....
> Of course, for there to be no heat in the brick, its > temperature must be 0 degrees Kelvin. Now suppose the brick is at 2 [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > temperature was 462 degrees F and the second 2 degrees F. No > comparison in the change it its amount of heat. Ah, yes, this is Brett Magill's "apples analogy" above (in the Google thread tree).
By Odin's lost eye, I think I understand where y'all are coming from! And it proves, once again, the semanticists' contention that all confusion is over semantics!
Indeed, there is a great deal of difference between 0K and 2F, which is not the same as between 2F and 4F. But, still, y'all keep referring to some absolute scale (K), though the issue is on the F scale.
Pray tell, then, whether it would be "correct" to say, at least, that "15 degrees Fahrenheit is three times warmer, in degrees Fahrenheit, than 5 degrees Fahrenheit"??
If it feels cold outside (5F) but not as cold in a simple wooden shed (15F), I'd say it was "warmer" in the shed. If I check my thermometer, I'd say it was "three times warmer." Why is that wrong? What do I care about absolute zero?
> --Lynn C6L1V@shaw.ca - 13 Nov 2006 03:37 GMT > > Perhaps Dr. Ecker replied too quickly. Some of us sometimes do that. > > :-) [quoted text clipped - 12 lines] > heat, too! Wait, so what's temperature measuring, exactly? They both > measure heat? No: temperature does not measure heat (at least, not in physics). I can have two identical bricks at the same temperature. Taken together, they contain twice as much heat as one brick, but their temperature does not change. Temperature measures an "abstract" concept called temperature! Back in the days when the laws governing heat, etc., were being discovered, people found it necessary to have a quantity they subsequently called temperature. It does correspond roughly to your everyday concept of 'hot' and 'cold', but it is nevertheless a different concept from 'heat'. We now know that it essentially measures the average kinetic energy of the constituent particles that make up the object you are speaking of; however, the originators of the subject did not know that. The connection between temperature and average kinetic energy per particle was only discovered near the end of the 19th century. I suggest that you go to the library and take out a book on thermodynamics and statistical mechanics for a more complete story.
> Why two measures of heat for the one object? Or is > "calories", more strictly speaking, the measure of the expenditure of [quoted text clipped - 25 lines] > "15 degrees Fahrenheit is three times warmer, in degrees Fahrenheit, > than 5 degrees Fahrenheit"?? No, and this has been explained to you over and over again--it's just that you don't seem to listen. There is, perhaps a limited (and useless) sense in which 15 F is 3 times 5F: suppose we start with an object at 0 degrees F and heat it up by pumping energy into it. Then (provided we are careful and arrange the experiment in an appropriate manner) we will find that we need to expend three times as much energy to raise the object to 15 degrees F as 5 degrees F (starting from 0 F in both cases). However, this statement is essentially useless. What happens if we start, instead, with an object at 25 degrees below zero F and raise it to 5 F or to 15 F? We will now find that we only need to pump in 33% more energy to raise it to 15, so now the ratio of 3 no longer applies. If we started from 50 below the ratio would be different again.
I think part of you problem is "word overloading", inasmuch as you want to keep the meanings of words from everyday conversation in technical discussions.
> If it feels cold outside (5F) but not as cold in a simple wooden shed > (15F), I'd say it was "warmer" in the shed. Yes, that is correct. The Farenheit (or Celsius) scales are so-called "interval scales", so object B is hotter than object A if you increase (or add to) the temperature of A to get B. Note: this says you ADD; it says nothing at all about MULTIPLYING. An interval scale allows meaningful addition and subtraction, but not multiplication or division. This distinction is more than mere semantics because it makes a genuine difference to the types of valid statistical tests that are available to analyze data.
> If I check my thermometer, > I'd say it was "three times warmer." Why is that wrong? Because you would be talking nonsense. The statement has no meaning. It is like saying that this object is three times as yellow as that object. You can say it, but it means nothing and communicates nothing. This has already been explained to you several times, but you are offering no evidence that you have even read, let alone thought about the answers you have been given.
> What do I > care about absolute zero? Many people don't care at all, and they manage to live perfectly well even so. However, if they want to do chemistry, chemical engineering, physics, etc., then they DO need to care.
R.G. Vickson
> > --Lynn Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 06:22 GMT > No: temperature does not measure heat (at least, not in physics). I can > have two identical bricks at the same temperature. Taken together, they [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > 19th century. I suggest that you go to the library and take out a book > on thermodynamics and statistical mechanics for a more complete story. I think I will. Folks have noted that "temperature" is more complex than I'd thought.
> No, and this has been explained to you over and over again--it's just > that you don't seem to listen. I don't understand! How's that not listening???
> There is, perhaps a limited (and > useless) sense in which 15 F is 3 times 5F: suppose we start with an [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > to raise the object to 15 degrees F as 5 degrees F (starting from 0 F > in both cases). However, this statement is essentially useless. Why is it useless? I suppose synonyms are useless, too, then -- why "computer laptop" and "computer notebook"??
> What > happens if we start, instead, with an object at 25 degrees below zero F > and raise it to 5 F or to 15 F? We will now find that we only need to > pump in 33% more energy to raise it to 15, so now the ratio of 3 no > longer applies. If we started from 50 below the ratio would be > different again. Sorry, how did you arrive at the "33% more" figure? 33% more than what?? Between -25F and 15F there's, what, 40 degrees' difference....
> I think part of you problem is "word overloading", inasmuch as you want > to keep the meanings of words from everyday conversation in technical > discussions. Yes, I do stumble over semantics (wording, meaning). And that motivates part of my complaint: we should have different words in technical discussions; technical discussions should not employ everyday words. Why should the eskimos have fifty different words for snow, and not one single word for snow-in-general, yet our civilization uses the minus-sign in three different ways???
> Yes, that is correct. The Farenheit (or Celsius) scales are so-called > "interval scales", so object B is hotter than object A if you increase > (or add to) the temperature of A to get B. Note: this says you ADD; it > says nothing at all about MULTIPLYING. An interval scale allows > meaningful addition and subtraction, but not multiplication or > division. Whoa -- for me, addition is first cousins with multiplication! How is it possible to add but not multiply?? I've always thought of multiplication as a kind of "patterned aggregate addition"....
> This distinction is more than mere semantics because it makes > a genuine difference to the types of valid statistical tests that are > available to analyze data. Indeed -- but unfortunately I still fail to see why. Not to worry: I expect a bit of wrestling with some word-problems to help clear up the matter...in time....
> Because you would be talking nonsense. The statement has no meaning. So how about all them public television science shows that sprout factoids like "a million times hotter than the sun" and so forth??
> It > is like saying that this object is three times as yellow as that > object. Now that's a most interesting analogy, and most convenient: bear with me and you'll see where I'm coming from with all this....
Obviously, it's possible to say "3x more yellow" meaningfully when speaking of color values in something like Photoshop, say. Similarly, I'm wondering what why 15F isn't 3X warmer than 5F, even within the context of the Fahrenheit scale.
> You can say it, but it means nothing and communicates nothing. > This has already been explained to you several times, but you are > offering no evidence that you have even read, let alone thought about > the answers you have been given. Can you try and put yourself in my shoes before claiming that these shoes you so kindly cobbled for me fit me perfectly fine? I find everyone's responses most interesting, and if I can integrate them all I'm sure I'll have the answer (but that takes some time). However, you are all answering the question from your own already-enlightened perspectives, so of course your answers make perfect sense -- to you all. But to help me most effectively, you ought to get at what's causing confusion on my end -- of which factor I myself have no real notion, though folks' mentioning everything from "over-wording" to "'temperature' as an abstraction different from 'heat' and 'warmth'" seems to be about right, in the aggregate -- and, falling short of diagnosing my illness, as it were, it does no good for you as the doctor to say, "up, man! Walk!"
> Many people don't care at all, and they manage to live perfectly well > even so. However, if they want to do chemistry, chemical engineering, > physics, etc., then they DO need to care. Not sure why. Water boils when it boils; why is it necessary for the scale to refer to an absolute point? Some set of ticks/numbers on either side of some arbitrary point: as long as I know which one water boils at, freezes at, etc, why does it matter?
> R.G. Vickson Richard Ulrich - 13 Nov 2006 04:20 GMT [snip]
> Pray tell, then, whether it would be "correct" to say, at least, that > "15 degrees Fahrenheit is three times warmer, in degrees Fahrenheit, > than 5 degrees Fahrenheit"?? A statement that narrow? Yes, I would say that you could say it. The problem is, Nobody is apt to care, and they may think you are strange for saying it that way.
> If it feels cold outside (5F) but not as cold in a simple wooden shed > (15F), I'd say it was "warmer" in the shed. If I check my thermometer, > I'd say it was "three times warmer." Why is that wrong? What do I > care about absolute zero? That statement is not so narrow. This time, Nobody knows what you are talking about, especially if *they* are well-informed. That's not a desirable model for good communications. If you are communicating to your soul-buddy, say what you want!
Should your personal friend, who knows your idiosyncratic communications, now ask you, "Is it 3 degrees compared to 1 degree, or exactly what are you saying?" So you haven't said much to him, either.
One thing that has not been mentioned is that a "zero point" and a ratio-scale *can* be fixed by your present need, and not by someone else's scale. Forty degrees F. is twice as far from "the freezing point of water" than 36 degrees F. is. -- That is a legitimate ratio, if someone has the need for it (it can be measured in degrees C), for numbers above the zero.
 Signature Rich Ulrich, wpilib@pitt.edu http://www.pitt.edu/~wpilib/index.html
Ray O'Hara - 12 Nov 2006 22:09 GMT Because the lower the number the colder it is. Warmer is higher , colder is lower.
Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 01:58 GMT > Because the lower the number the colder it is. > Warmer is higher , colder is lower. That's what I'm thinking. Apparently, that's incorrect.
Prisoner at War - 13 Nov 2006 01:59 GMT > Because the lower the number the colder it is. > Warmer is higher , colder is lower. That's what I'm thinking. Apparently, that's incorrect.
Jonathan Hoyle - 14 Nov 2006 20:54 GMT > Scales of measurement that have both equal intervals and absolute zero > points are spoken of as ratio scales, for the simple reason that they > permit the meaningful calculation of ratios. <rant snipped>
Just some other followup questions for you:
1. Is 15°C three times warmer than 5°C? 2. Is 41°F three times warmer than 59°F? (Note that these temperatures are the same as in #1) 3. Is 288°K three times warmer than 278°K? (Note that these temperatures are the same as in #1) 4. Is -9°C three times warmer than -15°C? (Note that these temperatures are the same as in your original problem.) 5. Is 263°K three times warmer than 258°K? (Note that these temperatures are the same as in your original problem.) 6. What is three times warmer than 0°? (Does Fahrenheit or Celsisus matter?) 7. What is three times warmer than -1°? (Does Fahrenheit or Celsisus matter?) 8. Why does "three times warmer" depend on what kind of thermometer I have? 9. Without any units of measure, I can tell if something is three times taller than another object (by simply stacking). Without any thermometers, could I feel something being "three times warmer"? 10. Do you feel stupid yet?
Prisoner at War - 15 Nov 2006 17:30 GMT > Just some other followup questions for you: > > 1. Is 15°C three times warmer than 5°C? Yeah.
> 2. Is 41°F three times warmer than 59°F? (Note that these > temperatures are the same as in #1) Seems like it.
> 3. Is 288°K three times warmer than 278°K? (Note that these > temperatures are the same as in #1) Hmm, no.
> 4. Is -9°C three times warmer than -15°C? (Note that these > temperatures are the same as in your original problem.) No....
> 5. Is 263°K three times warmer than 258°K? (Note that these > temperatures are the same as in your original problem.) Hmm, no. I guess I've not been precise in what "three times" means, exactly!
> 6. What is three times warmer than 0°? (Does Fahrenheit or Celsisus > matter?) Good parenthetical aside. But wouldn't we simply "appeal to the scale" for such judgments? Seems the whole point of having a scale, to tell us what level something is at, and, between intervals, how many times one level is relative to another.
> 7. What is three times warmer than -1°? (Does Fahrenheit or Celsisus > matter?) Okay, I guess "warmth" or "heat" is not the same as "temperature" -- "temperature" is what measures "heat," but it depends on the scale being used...?
> 8. Why does "three times warmer" depend on what kind of thermometer I > have? Hmm. I'd just assumed that measures depend on their rulers. Like, the definition of a word depends on what it says in the dictionary. So the level of heat is whatever the scale says.
> 9. Without any units of measure, I can tell if something is three times > taller than another object (by simply stacking). Without any > thermometers, could I feel something being "three times warmer"? I see. Hmm! Now why would one's intuitive (mammalian?) number-sense apply visually, but not, um, tactilely?? How odd! I think I should x-post to an evolutionary neurobiology group....
> 10. Do you feel stupid yet? I feel tickled! Do you feel smart for poking me in the belly?
Thanks! I love me a good ol' handy Socratic Dialogue. They should include one of these with every thermometer sold!
R.H. Allen - 15 Nov 2006 20:16 GMT >> 9. Without any units of measure, I can tell if something is three times >> taller than another object (by simply stacking). Without any [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > apply visually, but not, um, tactilely?? How odd! I think I should > x-post to an evolutionary neurobiology group.... I don't see that it does apply visually and not tactilely. After all, you're not measuring the length/height of an object with your eyes, you're measuring it with a scale (be it a ruler or a stack of objects) and reading the scale with your eyes. Likewise, when you measure temperature you measure it with a scale (the thermometer) and read the scale with your eyes.
And FWIW, many of our senses (if not all of them) are non-linear. Your eyes, for example, respond logarithmically to light intensity. If I double the light intensity in a dimly lit room you will perceive it as a much larger change, relatively speaking, than if I do the same thing in a brightly lit room. Considering the rather small temperature range over which water goes from feeling warm to hot to painful, it wouldn't surprise me if the nerves that sense temperature work similarly.
Bill McCray - 15 Nov 2006 10:10 GMT > I don't see that it does apply visually and not tactilely. After all, > you're not measuring the length/height of an object with your eyes, > you're measuring it with a scale (be it a ruler or a stack of objects) > and reading the scale with your eyes. Likewise, when you measure > temperature you measure it with a scale (the thermometer) and read the > scale with your eyes. Let's suppose that your scale is a yardstick with it's zero point in the middle. If you sit it beside an object that is two feet tall, the six-inch mark is even with the object's top. If you sit it beside an object that is three-feet tall, the eighteen-inch mark is even with that object's top. Would you say that the second object is three times the height of the first? That's what the scale says.
Bill
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Dik T. Winter - 16 Nov 2006 02:11 GMT > Let's suppose that your scale is a yardstick with it's zero point in > the middle. If you sit it beside an object that is two feet tall, the > six-inch mark is even with the object's top. If you sit it beside an > object that is three-feet tall, the eighteen-inch mark is even with > that object's top. Would you say that the second object is three > times the height of the first? That's what the scale says. The answer to the question in the subject is much simpler. The first answer is of course that 5°F is colder than 15°F. But even if we reverse the temperatures, I would say that 5°F is 27/17 colder than 15°F ;-).
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R.H. Allen - 16 Nov 2006 17:46 GMT Actually, I wrote this in response to Prisoner at War.
>> I don't see that it does apply visually and not tactilely. After all, >> you're not measuring the length/height of an object with your eyes, [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > that object's top. Would you say that the second object is three > times the height of the first? That's what the scale says. You failed to calibrate the scale, so you're reading an erroneous value. I presumed that everyone reading this would know how to use a ruler properly. If you're trying to pick a fight over semantics ("reading the scale with your eyes") forget it -- I think my meaning is quite clear, particularly when read in context.
Bill McCray - 16 Nov 2006 08:59 GMT > Actually, I wrote this in response to Prisoner at War. > [quoted text clipped - 17 lines] > scale with your eyes") forget it -- I think my meaning is quite clear, > particularly when read in context. Pick a fight? Where in the world did you get that idea? Please excuse anything I did that might have led you to think that.
I'm still responding to the subject line and trying to get the OP to realize why where the zero point on a scale is (whether a ruler or a thermometer) matters in trying to say that one thing is three times another. Having the zero point on a yardstick in the middle is similar to using the Celcius or Fahrenheit scale to measure temperature.
I apologize for the extraneous "'" in my post.
Bill
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Prisoner at War - 15 Nov 2006 22:06 GMT > I don't see that it does apply visually and not tactilely. After all, > you're not measuring the length/height of an object with your eyes, > you're measuring it with a scale (be it a ruler or a stack of objects) > and reading the scale with your eyes. Likewise, when you measure > temperature you measure it with a scale (the thermometer) and read the > scale with your eyes. No, wait, his example was about gauging relative heights sans scales -- hence the question.
Or, maybe to turn the question around: why do we seem to have a built-in scale for a property like height but not one for temperature?
> And FWIW, many of our senses (if not all of them) are non-linear. Your > eyes, for example, respond logarithmically to light intensity. If I [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > which water goes from feeling warm to hot to painful, it wouldn't > surprise me if the nerves that sense temperature work similarly. Now that is interesting indeed! Never considered that.
Still, it seems the question remains: why is our visual sense apparently so much more well-developed compared to our tactile sense such that we can tell that something is three times as tall or short as another, but not be able to "tell" that something is "three times" as warm?
BTW, did you mean "exponentially" instead of "logarithmically"?
R.H. Allen - 16 Nov 2006 17:35 GMT >> I don't see that it does apply visually and not tactilely. After all, >> you're not measuring the length/height of an object with your eyes, [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > No, wait, his example was about gauging relative heights sans scales -- > hence the question. No, his example involved stacking short objects next to a tall object in order to gauge relative height. The short objects act as a scale.
> Or, maybe to turn the question around: why do we seem to have a > built-in scale for a property like height but not one for temperature? I don't think we do. Imagine a pole sticking out of the ground in a vast plain, with nothing around to compare its height to. What do you think the odds are that you'll correctly guess its height just by looking at it? Our brains create visual scales from nearby objects, and if we don't have those scales available we don't accurately gauge the sizes of objects. Often it is our own bodies that we use as that scale -- if nothing else, when standing near the Great Wall of China you know it's a heck of a lot taller than you are. But when you look at a photo of the wall it's impossible to tell how big it is unless there's something else in the photo, like a person standing on top of the wall, to give you a sense of its size.
>> And FWIW, many of our senses (if not all of them) are non-linear. Your >> eyes, for example, respond logarithmically to light intensity. If I [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > another, but not be able to "tell" that something is "three times" as > warm? Considering that numerical and mathematical skill beyond basic counting is a rather recent development in human history I would argue that being able to tell that *anything* is three times *anything* is a matter of education, not innate visual sense. That is, 50,000 years ago a nomadic tribesman would look at a hill and think *not* "the one on the left is three times taller than the one on the right", but something more like "the one on the left is a lot taller than the one on the right." With education, we've learned to make more refined estimates of relative height. This has been helpful to educated folks in other pursuits requiring education, but knowing that one hill was three times larger than the other would likely have been of no value to the aforementioned nomadic tribesman.
So then I suppose the question is why haven't we learned to use our tactile sense to tell when something is three times as warm as something else. Since relative measurements are only meaningful on an absolute scale, something three times as warm as an ice cube will be hot enough to melt zinc. Something just twice as warm as an ice cube will be hotter than boiling water. Thus, we've never had the chance to learn this skill because in so doing we would maim ourselves. At the same time, if you give yourself a scale to use -- ice at 32°F, cold tap water at about 60°F, hot tap water at about 125°F -- you can probably guess temperatures better than you realize.
> BTW, did you mean "exponentially" instead of "logarithmically"? No, I meant logarithmically. Let's say the light in the first example has an intensity of 2 (in arbitrary units). Now, log 2 = 0.3, which is the factor your eyes perceive. If I double the intensity, to 4, then the factor your eyes perceive is log 4 = 0.6, so your eyes perceive a doubling in intensity. Now if I double the intensity again, to 8, the factor your eyes perceive is log 8 = 0.9 and your eyes perceive only a 50% increase in intensity. If I double the intensity again, your eyes perceive only a 25% increase in intensity. And so on.
In reality it's a little more complex than that, but to first order the logarithmic description is a good one.
zzbunker@netscape.net - 15 Nov 2006 06:47 GMT > >From the famous Vassar Stats text at > <http://departments.vassar.edu/~lowry/webtext.html>: [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > such as the Kelvin scale, whose zero point does mark an absolute zero > level of temperature But such is NOT the case, in science. Since James Watt invented steam engines for 5 and 15 degress fF, and Kelvin invented -460 degrees F for mad dogs and Englishmen.
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Virgil - 15 Nov 2006 06:53 GMT > > >From the famous Vassar Stats text at > > <http://departments.vassar.edu/~lowry/webtext.html>: [quoted text clipped - 20 lines] > Since James Watt invented steam engines for 5 and 15 degress fF, > and Kelvin invented -460 degrees F for mad dogs and Englishmen. I rather thought that Kelvin invented -273 and bit degrees C for everyone.
zzbunker@netscape.net - 15 Nov 2006 13:03 GMT > > > >From the famous Vassar Stats text at > > > <http://departments.vassar.edu/~lowry/webtext.html>: [quoted text clipped - 23 lines] > I rather thought that Kelvin invented -273 and bit degrees C for > everyone. He ivvented neither. He invented the K to measure heat capacity, and idiot triple integrals to measure temperature.
Puppet_Sock - 15 Nov 2006 18:09 GMT [I'm lonely, please talk to me]
Join a dating service. Socks
Prisoner at War - 16 Nov 2006 19:03 GMT You're lonely?
Don't bother *me* -- find a foot and get stuffed!
> [I'm lonely, please talk to me] > > Join a dating service. > Socks Tom Peel - 16 Nov 2006 17:07 GMT Q: How Is 5°F ***NOT*** Three Times Warmer Than 15°F???? A: Because it's 10° colder
T.
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http://www.cpj.org/Briefings/2005/russia_murders/russia_murders.html
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