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am - pm again

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Tron - 20 Nov 2008 08:16 GMT
Hi,

Sorry to bother y'all again ...

Once more, translating a US english source, I stumble over the hour datum;
I assume the problem/answer is the same as last time, with a 12 hour lag;
I just need to confirm.

The time given for a daytime occurrence is - "12.43 p.m.".
Strictly speaking, this is the same as 27 minutes past noon, right?

Tia!

MVH,

T
Tron - 20 Nov 2008 08:23 GMT
> Hi,
....

> The time given for a daytime occurrence is - "12.43 p.m.".
> Strictly speaking, this is the same as 27 minutes past noon, right?

The pitfalls of the clipboard.... scire licet "43 minutes past noon",
please.

MVH,

T
Andrew Heenan - 20 Nov 2008 09:48 GMT
"Tron" <tronfuru@frizurf.no> skrev ...
> The time given for a daytime occurrence is - "12.43 p.m.".
> Strictly speaking, this is the same as 43 minutes past noon, right?

Not really.
But 43 minutes past noon is the same as 12.43 pm.

(see thedifference?)
Signature


Andrew
http://www.wordskit.com/
http://www.flayme.com/

"If A is success in life, then A = x + y + z.
Work is x; y is play; and z is keeping your mouth shut." ~ Albert Einstein

Tron - 20 Nov 2008 10:03 GMT
Hi,

thx.

> "Tron" <tronfuru@frizurf.no> skrev ...
>> The time given for a daytime occurrence is - "12.43 p.m.".
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>
> (see thedifference?)

... not really .... is it the "strictly"...?

Jobwise, it's OK as long as I can render it "12.43" in the 24 hour system.
Which I have.

MVH,

T
Andrew Heenan - 20 Nov 2008 10:17 GMT
> "Andrew Heenan" <fire@will.com> skrev i melding
>>> The time given for a daytime occurrence is - "12.43 p.m.".
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>> (see thedifference?)
> ... not really .... is it the "strictly"...?

Ok.

The time is 12.43 pm and / or 12.43 hours (using the 24hr clock).

You could say 43 mins past noon, and you'd not be 'wrong'.
But noon is noon; once you get a minute before or after, noon doesn't really
come into it. The '12' is the appropriate reference point.
Signature


Andrew
http://www.wordskit.com/
http://www.flayme.com/

"If A is success in life, then A = x + y + z.
Work is x; y is play; and z is keeping your mouth shut." ~ Albert Einstein

Tron - 20 Nov 2008 10:52 GMT
Hi,

>> "Andrew Heenan" <fire@will.com> skrev i melding
>>>> The time given for a daytime occurrence is - "12.43 p.m.".
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
> But noon is noon; once you get a minute before or after, noon doesn't
> really come into it. The '12' is the appropriate reference point.

I'm probably right dense ... and the job is delivered,
so further post-grad edu on my behalf is par coulance...

... but this must be aproblem of the nomenclature vs. the real (not to say
sidereal)...?
"Noon is noon" I take to be a statement of astronomical fact
which implies that ..... it is extensionless? Cannot, as such,  be
"counted"?
It works as a reference point, but is not identical to "12.00" in the 24
hour system,
either because "12.00" has an in-system 59-of-60-parts-of-a second extension
(12:00:00 - 12:00:01), or because noon is "the sun being at its apex in the
sky" which is not horological,
but astrological...?
I don't know the precise technical meaning of "...doesn't really come into
it" in this context, I think.

MVH,

T
Peter Duncanson (BrE) - 20 Nov 2008 12:23 GMT
>Hi,
>
[quoted text clipped - 30 lines]
>I don't know the precise technical meaning of "...doesn't really come into
>it" in this context, I think.

I'll leave Andrew Heenan to further explain his objection.

To me, "43 minutes past noon" correctly identifies the time but is not a
conventional way of expressing it. Some people would understand its meaning,
but others might be temporarily perplexed.

This is an area where it is best to stick to the conventions.

The time "43 minutes past noon" is conventionally expressed as "12:43 p.m.". A
logical analysis of "12:43 p.m." could lead to a completely different time of
day. The dictionary definition of "p.m." (post meridiem) is "after noon".
"12:43 p.m." could be expanded, literally, to "12 hours and 43 minutes after
noon" which is 43 minutes past midnight, which is not what "12:43 p.m." means
according to the normal convention.



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Peter Duncanson, UK
(in alt.english.usage)

Tron - 20 Nov 2008 13:40 GMT
Hi,

....
> I'll leave Andrew Heenan to further explain his objection.
>
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>
> This is an area where it is best to stick to the conventions.

Yes, well, the target language is not english.
I was just concerned to get the facts right first, which is also rather
crucial to finding the right expression.

> The time "43 minutes past noon" is conventionally expressed as "12:43
> p.m.". A
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> means
> according to the normal convention.

Yes, my previous am/pm query concerned the exprsssion "12.27 a.m.",
which turned out to be 27 minutes past midnight.

T
Hatunen - 20 Nov 2008 20:26 GMT
>The time "43 minutes past noon" is conventionally expressed as "12:43 p.m.". A
>logical analysis of "12:43 p.m." could lead to a completely different time of
>day. The dictionary definition of "p.m." (post meridiem) is "after noon".
>"12:43 p.m." could be expanded, literally, to "12 hours and 43 minutes after
>noon" which is 43 minutes past midnight, which is not what "12:43 p.m." means
>according to the normal convention.

Wouldn't that depend on the actual interpretation of "post
meridiem"? It could either mean H hours and M minutes since the
sun reached the apex, or it could mean the block of time that
comes after the sun has reached the apex.

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  ************* DAVE HATUNEN (hatunen@cox.net) *************
  *       Tucson Arizona, out where the cacti grow         *
  * My typos & mispellings are intentional copyright traps *

Andrew Heenan - 21 Nov 2008 09:31 GMT
> Wouldn't that depend on the actual interpretation of "post
> meridiem"? It could either mean H hours and M minutes since the
> sun reached the apex, or it could mean the block of time that
> comes after the sun has reached the apex.

Nope; it depends on your time zone.
The days of individual time as per the observed behaviour of the sun have
long gone!
Signature


Andrew
http://www.wordskit.com/
http://www.flayme.com/

"If A is success in life, then A = x + y + z.
Work is x; y is play; and z is keeping your mouth shut." ~ Albert Einstein

Hatunen - 21 Nov 2008 23:11 GMT
>> Wouldn't that depend on the actual interpretation of "post
>> meridiem"? It could either mean H hours and M minutes since the
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>The days of individual time as per the observed behaviour of the sun have
>long gone!

I'm going back to fundamentals...

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  ************* DAVE HATUNEN (hatunen@cox.net) *************
  *       Tucson Arizona, out where the cacti grow         *
  * My typos & mispellings are intentional copyright traps *

mm - 20 Nov 2008 22:36 GMT
>>Hi,
>>
[quoted text clipped - 44 lines]
>"12:43 p.m." could be expanded, literally, to "12 hours and 43 minutes after
>noon"

And that literal expansion would be wrong.   Because the second isn't
the same as the first.  Because 12:43 p.m. is a standard notation with
a standard meaning, and it does't mean 12 and 43 past noon.  It means
43 minutes past noon.

>which is 43 minutes past midnight, which is not what "12:43 p.m." means
>according to the normal convention.

But that was never what Tron suggested.  He said that 12:43PM was the
same as 43 mnutes past noon.   And he's right.  He didn't say 12 hours
and 43 minutes past.

But Tron, I think you misused "strictly speaking".   When we're
talking about sameness, it either is the same or it's not.  There's no
need to be strict. There's no leeway within which to be strict.
There is no non-strict position that is different. And there is no way
that, loosely speaking, 12:43PM would not be the same as 43 minutes
past noon.   There is loosely or strictly.  

And, despite this thread, it's no secret that 12:43PM is 43 minutes
past noon.

The phrase strictly speaking serves no purpose and if anything is
confusing.
Peter Duncanson (BrE) - 21 Nov 2008 11:45 GMT
>>>Hi,
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 56 lines]
>same as 43 mnutes past noon.   And he's right.  He didn't say 12 hours
>and 43 minutes past.

I was simply pointing out that using the dictionary definition (OED) of PM
(post meridiem) = "past noon", 12:43PM would arithmetically or logically mean
"12 hours 43 minutes past noon".

However, it is a mistake to interpret PM as "past noon". In labelling times PM
means "in the time between noon and midnight". In the afternoon the hours are
conventionally numbered 1 to 11 which are the same as the time elapsed since
noon, but the zeroth elapsed hour is conventionally numbered 12.

The 12 is a continuation into the afternoon of the numbering of the hours of
the morning.

The same oddity applies when PM becomes AM at midnight. The time label AM
means "in the time between midnight and noon".

>But Tron, I think you misused "strictly speaking".   When we're
>talking about sameness, it either is the same or it's not.  There's no
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
>The phrase strictly speaking serves no purpose and if anything is
>confusing.

Signature

Peter Duncanson, UK
(in alt.english.usage)

Tron - 21 Nov 2008 16:47 GMT
Hi,

.....
But Tron, I think you misused "strictly speaking".

.... The phrase strictly speaking serves no purpose and if anything is
> confusing.

Thx, I can see that. I'll ne'er speak strictly again.

Thx to everyone who chipped in!

T
mm - 21 Nov 2008 19:08 GMT
>But Tron, I think you misused "strictly speaking".   When we're
>talking about sameness, it either is the same or it's not.  There's no
>need to be strict. There's no leeway within which to be strict.
>There is no non-strict position that is different. And there is no way
>that, loosely speaking, 12:43PM would not be the same as 43 minutes
>past noon.   There is loosely or strictly.  

I meant "There is no loosely or strictly".  But you probaly knew that,
Tron, given your reply.
Odysseus - 30 Nov 2008 21:22 GMT
<snip>

> ... but this must be aproblem of the nomenclature vs. the real (not to say
> sidereal)...?

The sidereal day is only about 23h56m long, so most clocks ignore it.

> "Noon is noon" I take to be a statement of astronomical fact which
> implies that ..... it is extensionless? Cannot, as such,  be
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> because noon is "the sun being at its apex in the sky" which is not
> horological, but astrological...?

Astronomical, please: astrology is little concerned with observable
phenomena.

The main problem with using the actual position of the Sun for reference
is that the length of a day (the interval between consecutive noons)
varies over the course of each year, while we prefer a system of
timekeeping that progresses uniformly. It's certainly easier to build
clocks that way! Moreover, according to standard time even the mean
(uniform) local noon comes earlier or later than 12h00 at most places,
the discrepancy being proportional to the difference in longitude
between that location and the meridian belonging to its time-zone. Of
course none of this is relevant to most people -- but it's essential to
take into account when calibrating a sundial, for example.

Signature

Odysseus

mm - 20 Nov 2008 22:36 GMT
>> Hi,
>....
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>The pitfalls of the clipboard.... scire licet "43 minutes past noon",
>please.

I think it's 27.  It's one of those quirky things where you make a
mistake but get the right answer anyhow.

>MVH,
>
>T
Ian Jackson - 21 Nov 2008 09:27 GMT
>>> Hi,
>>....
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
>>
>>T

NUMBERWANG!!!!
Signature

Ian

Martin Ambuhl - 20 Nov 2008 09:01 GMT
> Hi,
>
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> The time given for a daytime occurrence is - "12.43 p.m.".
> Strictly speaking, this is the same as 27 minutes past noon, right?

Unless you have one of those very rare clocks with 100 divisions per
hour, it is strictly speaking 43 minutes past noon.  The choice of '.'
vs ':' as a separator of hours and minutes is analogous to the same
choice for the separator of chapter and verse in citing the Bible.  The
_New American Bible_ and the _Revised English Bible_ notes (and Oxford
increasingly in other material) use '.' instead of te traditional ':'.
I suppose you will claim that "strictly" such references are to decimal
divisions of chapters.
Tron - 20 Nov 2008 10:05 GMT
>> Hi,
>>
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
> Unless you have one of those very rare clocks with 100 divisions per hour,
> it is strictly speaking 43 minutes past noon.

Thank you.
I misquoted wrt. the 27 minutes, it should be 43 minutes there, too.

The choice of '.'
> vs ':' as a separator of hours and minutes is analogous to the same choice
> for the separator of chapter and verse in citing the Bible.  The _New
> American Bible_ and the _Revised English Bible_ notes (and Oxford
> increasingly in other material) use '.' instead of te traditional ':'. I
> suppose you will claim that "strictly" such references are to decimal
> divisions of chapters.

I make no claims here, except to my errors.

Thx again.

MVH,

T
 
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