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have got/have gotten

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matt271829-news@yahoo.co.uk - 30 Jul 2007 18:02 GMT
In the flavour of English that I speak it's very common to use "have
got" to express possession (e.g. "I've got a swimming pool in my
garden") or obligation (e.g. "I've got to work over the weekend"),
even though "have" alone would suffice.

In both these cases "have gotten" instead of "have got" sounds
completely wrong to my ears. So, I was wondering, do people who would
normally say "have gotten" instead of "have got" avoid these usages,
or do they make an exception in these cases and say "have got"?
Bob Cunningham - 30 Jul 2007 18:06 GMT
> In the flavour of English that I speak it's very common to use "have
> got" to express possession (e.g. "I've got a swimming pool in my
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
> normally say "have gotten" instead of "have got" avoid these usages,
> or do they make an exception in these cases and say "have got"?

We're told that UK people don't say "gotten".

Americans say "I have gotten" to mean "I have acquired" and
"I have got" to mean "I possess".
matt271829-news@yahoo.co.uk - 30 Jul 2007 18:16 GMT
> On Mon, 30 Jul 2007 10:02:38 -0700,
> matt271829-n...@yahoo.co.uk said:
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
>
> We're told that UK people don't say "gotten".

Generally not.

> Americans say "I have gotten" to mean "I have acquired" and
> "I have got" to mean "I possess".

So, just to be clear, you're saying that an American who would say
"have gotten" in other senses would nevertheless say "have got" in the
two senses I identified?
Cece - 30 Jul 2007 19:29 GMT
On Jul 30, 12:16 pm, matt271829-n...@yahoo.co.uk wrote:

> > On Mon, 30 Jul 2007 10:02:38 -0700,
> > matt271829-n...@yahoo.co.uk said:
[quoted text clipped - 19 lines]
> "have gotten" in other senses would nevertheless say "have got" in the
> two senses I identified?

Correct American English: "I have" for "I possess."  "I got" for "I
acquired" -- although this is the slang way of speaking.  "I have
gotten" for "I have acquired."

"I've got" (or even "I got") used to be baseball-field slang, but has
been moving into general speech over the last few years, along with
many other British grammar and pronunciation bits.

Cece
Bob Cunningham - 30 Jul 2007 20:29 GMT
> > On Mon, 30 Jul 2007 10:02:38 -0700,
> > matt271829-n...@yahoo.co.uk said:
[quoted text clipped - 19 lines]
> "have gotten" in other senses would nevertheless say "have got" in the
> two senses I identified?

First cut, yes.  But an American could conceivable say "I
have gotten a swimming pool" to mean "I have had a swimming
pool installed".

Another difference I've noticed in reading a British author
is that UK people seem to say "had got" where Americans
would say "had".  For example, "I wanted to buy a book, but
I found that I hadn't got enough money with me".

An American could say "I hadn't enough money with me", but
it would be a little artificial for me.  I would say "I
didn't have enough money with me".

Even though Americans say "I've got" to mean the same as "I
have", I don't think an American would say "had got" to mean
"I had".  At least I wouldn't.
matt271829-news@yahoo.co.uk - 30 Jul 2007 20:58 GMT
> On Mon, 30 Jul 2007 10:16:39 -0700,
> matt271829-n...@yahoo.co.uk said:
[quoted text clipped - 26 lines]
> have gotten a swimming pool" to mean "I have had a swimming
> pool installed".

Yes, in cases where the speaker is referring specifically to the
earlier acquisition of something, rather than the current possession
of it, "gotten" sounds right to me too (I mean, "right" for someone
who would normally use "gotten" rather than "got").

> Another difference I've noticed in reading a British author
> is that UK people seem to say "had got" where Americans
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> it would be a little artificial for me.  I would say "I
> didn't have enough money with me".

As a BrE speaker, I would personally tend to say "I didn't have enough
money with me" too, though "I hadn't got enough money with me" sounds
equally correct to me. "I hadn't enough money with me" sounds correct
but a little stilted. It's not something I think I would say, but I
wouldn't particularly remark upon it if someone else did.

> Even though Americans say "I've got" to mean the same as "I
> have", I don't think an American would say "had got" to mean
> "I had".  At least I wouldn't.
Percival P. Cassidy - 30 Jul 2007 19:50 GMT
>> In the flavour of English that I speak it's very common to use "have
>> got" to express possession (e.g. "I've got a swimming pool in my
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
>
> We're told that UK people don't say "gotten".

Not any more, but it's in the King James Version of the Bible. The older
usage has persisted in AmE but has been dropped in BrE and AusE.

> Americans say "I have gotten" to mean "I have acquired" and
> "I have got" to mean "I possess".

Perce
Donna Richoux - 30 Jul 2007 20:03 GMT
> In the flavour of English that I speak it's very common to use "have
> got" to express possession (e.g. "I've got a swimming pool in my
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> completely wrong to my ears. So, I was wondering, do people who would
> normally say "have gotten" instead of "have got" avoid these usages,

No, we say them like you do. We don't say "have gotten" for those forms.

> or do they make an exception in these cases and say "have got"?

These feel so different from the kind where we use "gotten" that I don't
think of them as being an "exception." We don't think of these as being
conjugations of "to get," if that makes any sense to you. It's like they
are two special verb idioms using the word "got" as a sort of auxiliary
which does not conjugate.

Possession -- "to have" a thing and "to have got" a thing are both used
in US English. "I have a problem." "I've got a problem."

Obligation -- "to have to" and "to have got to" do something are
interchangeable. "I have to go to work." "I've got to go to work."

If you have to use the past tense for those, the "got" disappears
entirely, usually to "I had."

The places you see "gotten" are various expressions based on the verb
"get." For example, the one meaning "lucky enough to be able to:
   "I get to see celebrities in my job,"
   "I got to see..."
   "I've gotten to see..."

Or the "get" that means "to reach a destination":
    We always get there on time.
    We got there an hour ago.
    We've gotten there many times before.

Or the "get" meaning to receive, or the one meaning to start moving,
or...

Signature

Best -- Donna Richoux

Don Phillipson - 30 Jul 2007 20:44 GMT
> The places you see "gotten" are various expressions based on the verb
> "get." For example, the one meaning "lucky enough to be able to:
>     "I get to see celebrities in my job,"
>     "I got to see..."
>     "I've gotten to see..."

As posted elswehere, Bible phrases are still used.
We  speak about ill-gotten gains, only-begotten children,
and so on.

Signature

Don Phillipson
Carlsbad Springs
(Ottawa, Canada)

matt271829-news@yahoo.co.uk - 30 Jul 2007 21:13 GMT
> <matt271829-n...@yahoo.co.uk> wrote:
> > In the flavour of English that I speak it's very common to use "have
[quoted text clipped - 21 lines]
> Obligation -- "to have to" and "to have got to" do something are
> interchangeable. "I have to go to work." "I've got to go to work."

That's interesting... I never thought of "to have got" and "to have
got to" as verbs in their own right. I just assumed "have got" was
always a conjugation of "to get". I imagine this distinction must be
much more apparent to people who, unlike me, use "gotten".

I always assumed that "have got" in the sense of possession (e.g.
"I've got a swimming pool in my garden") literally meant "at some
point in the past I got (i.e. acquired) a swimming pool", and then
somewhere in the history of this idiom the sense of having acquired
then became just one of possessing now. Do you think that is correct?
If so, it's interesting that "have gotten" became "have got" even in
dialects where "gotten" was otherwise retained.

On the other hand, I've no clue where the "got" comes from in senses
expressing obligation ("I've got to do this"). Any ideas?
Bob Cunningham - 30 Jul 2007 22:04 GMT
> > <matt271829-n...@yahoo.co.uk> wrote:
> > > In the flavour of English that I speak it's very common to use "have
[quoted text clipped - 15 lines]
> > are two special verb idioms using the word "got" as a sort of auxiliary
> > which does not conjugate.

But let's not forget that when an Englishperson says "I
hadn't got enough money", they are conjugating.  Present
perfect, "have got".  Past perfect, "had got".

> > Possession -- "to have" a thing and "to have got" a thing are both used
> > in US English. "I have a problem." "I've got a problem."
[quoted text clipped - 17 lines]
> On the other hand, I've no clue where the "got" comes from in senses
> expressing obligation ("I've got to do this"). Any ideas?

It seems strange to me, too.  I would guess that it might be
an analogical retroformation from "I have to do this" to "I
have got to do this", patterned on "I have got this" meaning
the same as "I have this".

Meanwhile, it seems worth saying here that the _New Shorter
Oxford English Dictionary_ has 38 different senses of the
verb "get", and some of them are further divided into
subsenses.
matt271829-news@yahoo.co.uk - 30 Jul 2007 23:09 GMT
> On Mon, 30 Jul 2007 13:13:18 -0700,
> matt271829-n...@yahoo.co.uk said:
[quoted text clipped - 22 lines]
> hadn't got enough money", they are conjugating.  Present
> perfect, "have got".  Past perfect, "had got".

Yes, but it's the "have" that conjugates here, not the "got", so isn't
this still consistent with the idea that "to have got", in the senses
under debate, is a verb in its own right, rather than being the past
participle of "to get"?
Bob Cunningham - 31 Jul 2007 05:21 GMT
> > On Mon, 30 Jul 2007 13:13:18 -0700,
> > matt271829-n...@yahoo.co.uk said:

[...]

> > > > These feel so different from the kind where we use "gotten" that I don't
> > > > think of them as being an "exception." We don't think of these as being
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
> under debate, is a verb in its own right, rather than being the past
> participle of "to get"?

There's a conjugation table for the verb "be" at
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conjugation_tables#Tense

======= Begin quote =======
There are 12 tenses:

Simple present (I am)
Simple present progressive or simple present continuous (I
am being)
Simple past (I was)
Simple past progressive or simple past continuous (I was
being)
Simple future (I shall be)
Simple future progressive or simple future continuous (I
shall be being)
Present perfect (I have been)
Present perfect progressive or present perfect continuous (I
have been being)
Past perfect or pluperfect (I had been)
Past perfect progressive, pluperfect progressive, past
perfect continuous or pluperfect continuous (I had been
being)
Future perfect (I shall have been)
Future perfect progressive or Future perfect continuous (I
shall have been being)

======= End quote =======

In other words, the present perfect of the verb "be" is
"have been", and the past perfect is "had been".  It's "be"
that's being conjugated, not "have".
Donna Richoux - 31 Jul 2007 00:02 GMT
> > <matt271829-n...@yahoo.co.uk> wrote:
> > > In the flavour of English that I speak it's very common to use "have
[quoted text clipped - 32 lines]
> somewhere in the history of this idiom the sense of having acquired
> then became just one of possessing now. Do you think that is correct?

I don't know the history. Not long ago I copied the OED's 75 pages on
"get" and that should come in handy here... Section 24 says (I assume
the current time was the first OED, some time around 1900):

    24. The perfect tense is used in familiar language in
    senses equivalent to those of the present tense of
    have or possess. (Cf. Gr.  to possess, lit. to have
    acquired.) So (colloq. or vulgar) in recent use to
    have got to = 'to have to', to be obliged to (see
    HAVE 7); also (orig. U.S.) in the sense of 'must', '
    to be certainly'.

Their first example given of "have got" meaning possession:

    1607  Timon I. ii. 26 Fie, th' art a churle, ye haue
    got a humour there Does not become a man.

And the first example of "have got to do" meaning "must do":

    1865 'L. CARROLL' Alice in Wonderland iv. 54 The
    first thing I've got to do is to grow to my right
    size again. Ibid. 57 I'd nearly forgotten that I've
    got to grow up again.

> If so, it's interesting that "have gotten" became "have got" even in
> dialects where "gotten" was otherwise retained.

Or it never was "have gotten" in those senses, so there was nothing to
change.

> On the other hand, I've no clue where the "got" comes from in senses
> expressing obligation ("I've got to do this"). Any ideas?

As Bob says, if you can accept that "have got" means "have," then it's
easy for "have got to" to mean "have to".  Then the question becomes,
why did "I have to grow up" mean "I must grow up"? Was the idea "It is
given to me to grow up"? That note above says to see OED "Have 7".

Signature

Best -- Donna Richoux

Robert Bannister - 31 Jul 2007 00:56 GMT
> As Bob says, if you can accept that "have got" means "have," then it's
> easy for "have got to" to mean "have to".  Then the question becomes,
> why did "I have to grow up" mean "I must grow up"? Was the idea "It is
> given to me to grow up"? That note above says to see OED "Have 7".

I'm just guessing, but it seems to me to lead on from phrases like "I
have (or I've got) something to do first", which work in other languages
like French and German (j'ai... à faire; ich habe... zu tun). Such
expressions can have two meanings: this is something on my list of
activities (which might just mean "I'm not bored"), or this is something
that needs to be done. From the second idea comes the "have (got) to".
Signature

Rob Bannister

matt271829-news@yahoo.co.uk - 31 Jul 2007 01:16 GMT
> > As Bob says, if you can accept that "have got" means "have," then it's
> > easy for "have got to" to mean "have to".  Then the question becomes,
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> activities (which might just mean "I'm not bored"), or this is something
> that needs to be done. From the second idea comes the "have (got) to".

I came across a paper about this at http://faculty.arts.ubc.ca/lbrinton/HAVETO.PDF.
It's pretty dense and technical though (for me, anyway!)
matt271829-news@yahoo.co.uk - 31 Jul 2007 01:07 GMT
> <matt271829-n...@yahoo.co.uk> wrote:

...

> > If so, it's interesting that "have gotten" became "have got" even in
> > dialects where "gotten" was otherwise retained.
>
> Or it never was "have gotten" in those senses, so there was nothing to
> change.

Yes, that's a good point.
Skitt - 31 Jul 2007 00:00 GMT
>> In the flavour of English that I speak it's very common to use "have
>> got" to express possession (e.g. "I've got a swimming pool in my
[quoted text clipped - 38 lines]
> Or the "get" meaning to receive, or the one meaning to start moving,
> or...

Might as well mention the "I've gotten old" (I've become old) type of usage.
Signature

Skitt

Farhad - 30 Jul 2007 20:10 GMT
On Jul 30, 9:02 pm, matt271829-n...@yahoo.co.uk wrote:
> In the flavour of English that I speak it's very common to use "have
> got" to express possession (e.g. "I've got a swimming pool in my
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
> normally say "have gotten" instead of "have got" avoid these usages,
> or do they make an exception in these cases and say "have got"?

Most learners of English as second or foreign language tend to find
this point too confusing to grasp. In order to reduce confusion, I
will provide you with some explanation from the point of view of
Americans.

In standard American English, the word "have" can function as either a
lexical verb or an auxiliary verb. When used as a lexical verb, it
carries some certain meaning like possessing, holding, eating, etc.
When used as an auxiliary verb, it carries a certain grammatical
function but no meaning. In its latter function, it is used to change
the aspect of the verb following it into perfective. The verb that
follows auxiliary "have" is invariably used in its past participle
form.

Now, compare the following sentences:

1. Prof. Rod Ellis has a lot of articles on task-based language
teaching.
2. Prof. Rod Ellis has published a lot of articles on task-based
language teaching.

"Has" is used as a lexical verb in the first sentence but as an
auxiliary in the second sentence.

For Americans, there is no semantic difference between "have" as a
lexical verb and "have got". Hence, they may interchangeably use "have
got" instead of the lexical "have":

Prof. Rod Ellis has got a lot of articles on task-based language
teaching.

But they never use "have got" interchangeably with the auxiliary
"have".

*Prof. Rod Ellis has gotten published ....

Now let's turn our attention to the verb "get".

"Get" is a lexical verb with too many meanings to be mentioned here.
Some of the most common meanings it has are receiving, obtaining,
achieving, etc. Its past form is "got" and its past participle form is
"gotten" (Remember, my explanation is from the viewpoint of American
English). So, in order to change the tense of a sentence into present
perfect, Americans use the auxiliary "have" followed by "gotten":

I have gotten no emails from Prof. Ellis.

I guess the picture is by now clear, but one point is worth
mentioning. Using "have got" instead of the lexical verb "have" is by
and large less common in formal discourse and more common in informal
discourse.

In British English, the past participle form of the verb "get" is the
same as its past form - that is, "got". Following is the British
counterpart of the above American sentence:

I have got no emails from Prof. Ellis.

Farhad
Peter Moylan - 31 Jul 2007 12:45 GMT
> In the flavour of English that I speak it's very common to use "have
> got" to express possession (e.g. "I've got a swimming pool in my
> garden") or obligation (e.g. "I've got to work over the weekend"),
> even though "have" alone would suffice.

My primary school teachers made it clear that the word "got" should
never pass our lips. In hindsight, I suspect that they were trying to
tell us that "I've got" was an unacceptable way to say "I have", that "I
got" should be "I obtained", and so on. Perhaps. If that's what they
were trying to teach us, they failed.

To this day, I feel uncomfortable using "got" in any context whatsoever.
Yes, I do use the word, but always with a slight feeling that I'm about
to be punished for uttering a taboo word.

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Peter Moylan                             http://www.pmoylan.org
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