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Discussion Groups / English Usage / January 2004A parsing problem with inversion
I write the sentence More puzzling is the candidate's views on free trade.' I parse the subject of the sentence to be the gerund puzzling' (or more puzzling'); the subject is singular, and therefore so is the verb. But, is that right? Is it not more correct to say that the subject is views' and subject and complement have been inverted for easier reading. (I've already discussed the candidate's views on some other topic, and, evidently, those views were less puzzling! I'm making the contrast with the previous sentence hence the inversion.) A singular verb before a plural complement usually feels unnatural: the unnaturalness is expected. That doesn't necessarily make it correct, I'm thinking. >I write the sentence > [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] >the unnaturalness is expected. That doesn't necessarily make it >correct, I'm thinking. What's bothering you? What _is_ bothering you? Inversion, gerunds, and a candidate's views on free trade. More than one issue, and you find the last one (candidate's views) puzzling. In our last episode, <d7fa3848.0401271212.2866240a@posting.google.com>, the lovely and talented halcombe broadcast on alt.usage.english: > I write the sentence > More puzzling is the candidate's views on free trade.' > I parse the subject of the sentence to be the gerund puzzling' (or > more puzzling'); the subject is singular, and therefore so is the > verb. > But, is that right? I don't think so. If "puzzling" is the subject, what is "views"? The only two things it could be are a predicate nominative or a predicate adjective (as these were called in my day). Predicate adjective is right out, for there is no way to construe "views" as an adjective. But neither is "views" the same thing as "puzzling." It isn't a predicate nominative either. > Is it not more correct to say that the subject is > views' and subject and complement have been inverted for easier > reading. (I've already discussed the candidate's views on some other > topic, and, evidently, those views were less puzzling! I'm making the > contrast with the previous sentence hence the inversion.) Yes. "Puzzling" is a gerundive. > A singular verb before a plural complement usually feels unnatural: > the unnaturalness is expected. That doesn't necessarily make it > correct, I'm thinking. I'd say the verb is wrong. But this sort of thing is common enough when the true subject is buried. I think there are many old threads on there is/are in similar situations.  SignatureLars Eighner -finger for geek code- eighner@io.com http://www.io.com/~eighner/ "There's one good kind of writer -- a dead one." --James T. Farrell > In our last episode, > <d7fa3848.0401271212.2866240a@posting.google.com>, [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > adjective is right out, for there is no way to construe "views" as > an adjective. I respectfully dissent. (Occupational phrasing.) The sentence is inverted, with the predicate adjective preceding the subject and verb, but a de-inversion makes the function of "puzzling" clear: "The candidate's views on free trade are more puzzling." Clearly a present participle used as a predicate adjective. (I don't see how it could be considered part of a progressive -- or continuous -- verb phrase "are puzzling.") Predicate adjectives modify nouns; they don't have to -- indeed can't -- substitute for them. > But neither is "views" the same thing as "puzzling." Doesn't have to be. See above. > It isn't a predicate nominative either. I'd delete the "either." Otherwise, ditto. > > Is it not more correct to say that the subject is > > views' and subject and complement have been inverted for easier > > reading. I would say so. In fact, I think I already did. > > (I've already discussed the candidate's views on some other > > topic, and, evidently, those views were less puzzling! I'm making the > > contrast with the previous sentence hence the inversion.) > > Yes. "Puzzling" is a gerundive. "Puzzling" is the "ing" form of the verb "puzzle" and can be used as modifier (present participle), noun (gerund), or part of the progressive aspect. Whether English even has a gerundive is something on which grammarians differ. It's all in how you define terms. In this instance ithe function of "puzzling" is clearly to modify, so it's a present participle. > > A singular verb before a plural complement usually feels unnatural: > > the unnaturalness is expected. That doesn't necessarily make it [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > when the true subject is buried. I think there are many old threads > on there is/are in similar situations. I'd deinvert the sentence. I don't think you need the inversion for emphasis, and it looks weird no matter which verb form you choose. SignatureBob Lieblich Lawyering away >> In our last episode, >> <d7fa3848.0401271212.2866240a@posting.google.com>, [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] >> adjective is right out, for there is no way to construe "views" as >> an adjective. > I respectfully dissent. (Occupational phrasing.) I don't think you do. (Seinfeld phrasing.) I'm trying to answer the question what is *views* (if we suppose "puzzling" is the subject)? I am arguing by the indirect method (reductio ad absurdum) that "puzzling" cannot be the subject. Synopsis: If "puzzling" is the subject, then "views" must be a PA or a PN. "Views" cannot be a PA a fortiori because it is not even an adjective. "Views" is not a PN because it not the same thing as "puzzling." "Views" is neither a PA or a PN, therefore "puzzling" cannot be the subject. > The sentence is > inverted, with the predicate adjective preceding the subject and > verb, but a de-inversion makes the function of "puzzling" clear: > "The candidate's views on free trade are more puzzling." Clearly a > present participle used as a predicate adjective. I agree. > (I don't see how > it could be considered part of a progressive -- or continuous -- > verb phrase "are puzzling.") Predicate adjectives modify nouns; > they don't have to -- indeed can't -- substitute for them. >> But neither is "views" the same thing as "puzzling." > Doesn't have to be. See above. >> It isn't a predicate nominative either. > I'd delete the "either." Otherwise, ditto. The antecedent of my "it" is "views." It isn't a PA. It isn't a PN either. It is neither a PA nor a PN. Your "it" is "puzzling." It isn't a PN either. >> > Is it not more correct to say that the subject is >> > views' and subject and complement have been inverted for easier >> > reading. > I would say so. In fact, I think I already did. >> > (I've already discussed the candidate's views on some other >> > topic, and, evidently, those views were less puzzling! I'm making the >> > contrast with the previous sentence hence the inversion.) >> >> Yes. "Puzzling" is a gerundive. > "Puzzling" is the "ing" form of the verb "puzzle" and can be used as > modifier (present participle), noun (gerund), or part of the > progressive aspect. Whether English even has a gerundive is > something on which grammarians differ. I'm in sympathy with that view, but if someone calls a verbal noun a gerund, I won't flinch from calling a verbal adjective a gerundive. > It's all in how you define > terms. In this instance ithe function of "puzzling" is clearly to [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] >> when the true subject is buried. I think there are many old threads >> on there is/are in similar situations. > I'd deinvert the sentence. I don't think you need the inversion for > emphasis, and it looks weird no matter which verb form you choose. SignatureLars Eighner -finger for geek code- eighner@io.com http://www.io.com/~eighner/ One more drink and I'll be under the host. --Dorothy Parker |
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