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most of 'em

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Hongyi Zhao - 29 Jan 2009 16:01 GMT
Hi all,

See the following snippets:

------------------------
>It's probably worth mentioning that AFAIK, assuming the above works,
>it'll only work in gawk since it requires a multi-character RS.

Wrong. The statement that it will *only* work in GAWK is false.

It will work in any AWK that supports multi-character RS.  And that's
most of 'em nowadays.
------------------------

In the above discussion, they use *most of 'em*.  Who can give me some
explanation on the origin and meaning of this phrase?

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.: Hongyi Zhao [ hongyi.zhao AT gmail.com ] Free as in Freedom :.

the Omrud - 29 Jan 2009 16:05 GMT
> Hi all,
>
[quoted text clipped - 12 lines]
> In the above discussion, they use *most of 'em*.  Who can give me some
> explanation on the origin and meaning of this phrase?

It's a representation of the way many English speakers say "most of
them" when speaking informally.

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David

Mike Lyle - 29 Jan 2009 16:42 GMT
[...]

>> In the above discussion, they use *most of 'em*.  Who can give me
>> some explanation on the origin and meaning of this phrase?
>
> It's a representation of the way many English speakers say "most of
> them" when speaking informally.

It's worth mentioning that we pronounce it "um", with the indefinite
unstressed "schwa" vowel: I don't think anybody says it exactly as it is
written.
<`I didn't know that Cheshire cats always grinned; in fact, I didn't
know that cats COULD grin.'

`They all can,' said the Duchess; `and most of 'em do.'>

Signature

Mike.

Pat Durkin - 29 Jan 2009 17:04 GMT
>> Hi all,
>>
[quoted text clipped - 15 lines]
> It's a representation of the way many English speakers say "most of
> them" when speaking informally.

Alternate spelling: mosta them   most a' them (them pronounced thum).
(alla them, anya them)  I don't know if many Brits, convert "of" to the
"a" (schwa sound), but it is common in the US.  (Oh, "most of 'em", etc,
can be heard fairly often in the US, too.)
Athel Cornish-Bowden - 29 Jan 2009 17:12 GMT
>> Hi all,
>>
[quoted text clipped - 15 lines]
> It's a representation of the way many English speakers say "most of
> them" when speaking informally.

That's how we tend to interpret it today, but I believe that
historically it was a separate word (maybe older than "them", I'm not
sure) written as "hem", and not by any means colloquial or sub-standard
in Chaucer's day.

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athel

Glenn Knickerbocker - 29 Jan 2009 16:08 GMT
> In the above discussion, they use *most of 'em*.

"'Em" is a contraction of "them."  It occurs in informal speech anytime
the word "them" is unstressed.  It's used in writing to emphasize the
informal nature of the expression.

¬R
Mark Brader - 30 Jan 2009 03:09 GMT
Hongyi Zhao wrote:
> > In the above discussion, they use *most of 'em*.

Glenn Knickerbocker:
> "'Em" is a contraction of "them."  It occurs in informal speech ...

And in case it wasn't obvious, "them" means "AWKs", which in turn
is informal for "implementations of the language AWK".
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Mark Brader, Toronto           "Let us knot coin gnu werds huitch
msb@vex.net                     are spelld rong."  -- Rik Fischer Smoody

James Hogg - 29 Jan 2009 16:24 GMT
>Hi all,
>
[quoted text clipped - 12 lines]
>In the above discussion, they use *most of 'em*.  Who can give me some
>explanation on the origin and meaning of this phrase?

First the meaning: "most of them".

Then the origin: It's a survival of the Middle English "hem",
which was the native form of the pronoun before it was displaced
by the Scandinavian "them".

James (BrE)
Athel Cornish-Bowden - 29 Jan 2009 17:16 GMT
>> Hi all,
>>
[quoted text clipped - 20 lines]
>
> James (BrE)

One of the problems with killfiling is that my newsreader sometimes
displays a single thread as if it were two or more, so I think I've
read the whole thread, only to find that someone has already said in
one of them the same as what I've said in another.

All this to say yes, James, I agree.

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athel

Don Phillipson - 29 Jan 2009 17:16 GMT
> ------------------------
> >It's probably worth mentioning that AFAIK, assuming the above works,
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> In the above discussion, they use *most of 'em*.  Who can give me some
> explanation on the origin and meaning of this phrase?

This is an attempt to reproduce speech style in writing.
1.  Fiction writers attempt to do this from time to time (see
Dickens, W.H. Drummond, Mark Twain etc.)   This is usually
called "dialect" and is usually out of fashion.
2.  The general convention for all non-fiction writing is that
only standard spelling should be used.  This applies even
when writing technical jargon.   (Gawk is not a standard
English word, which implies this passage is jargon.)

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Don Phillipson
Carlsbad Springs
(Ottawa, Canada)

 
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