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BrE: the rain shall/will have stopped

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JerryS - 22 May 2009 07:41 GMT
"By the time I'm going home, the rain shall/will have stopped."

Are both shall/will allowed in current-day BrE, in this context?

Thanks.
Dr Peter Young - 22 May 2009 11:57 GMT
> "By the time I'm going home, the rain shall/will have stopped."

> Are both shall/will allowed in current-day BrE, in this context?

Both are correct, I think, but only "will" is colloquial.

With best wishes,

Peter.

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Peter Young, (BrE), Consultant Anaesthetist, 1975-2004.
(US equivalent: Attending Anesthesiologist)     Now happily retired.
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CDB - 22 May 2009 14:02 GMT
>> "By the time I'm going home, the rain shall/will have stopped."

>> Are both shall/will allowed in current-day BrE, in this context?

> Both are correct, I think, but only "will" is colloquial.

I would expect the version with "shall" to express strong will or
intention, meaning something like "I command that the rain shall have
stopped."  The first part of the sentence looks a little funny to me;
"by the time I go home" or "by the time I'm on my way home" would look
all right, so I think the problem must be the use of the present
progressive.
luke@pellcomp.co.uk - 22 May 2009 14:21 GMT
> > "By the time I'm going home, the rain shall/will have stopped."
> > Are both shall/will allowed in current-day BrE, in this context?
>
> Both are correct, I think, but only "will" is colloquial.

Certainly 'will' is colloquial, but I rather think it's the only
correct alternative: 'shall' in the third person implies volition (in
English, though perhaps not Scottish, English), which seems
inappropriate here.
I'm thinking, of course, of the old story of the Scot who fell into a
river in England: when he cried 'I will drown: no-one shall save me',
the onlookers obeyed his wishes and let him drown.
Luke
JerryS - 22 May 2009 10:30 GMT
>>> "By the time I'm going home, the rain shall/will have stopped."
>>> Are both shall/will allowed in current-day BrE, in this context?
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> English, though perhaps not Scottish, English), which seems
> inappropriate here.

As far as I know, it also means strong prediction, which, if the person
had consulted the weather forecast, might be reasonable.

> I'm thinking, of course, of the old story of the Scot who fell into a
> river in England: when he cried 'I will drown: no-one shall save me',
> the onlookers obeyed his wishes and let him drown.
> Luke

Thanks.
Evan Kirshenbaum - 22 May 2009 16:20 GMT
>> > "By the time I'm going home, the rain shall/will have stopped."
>> > Are both shall/will allowed in current-day BrE, in this context?
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
> (in English, though perhaps not Scottish, English), which seems
> inappropriate here.

> I'm thinking, of course, of the old story of the Scot who fell into
> a river in England: when he cried 'I will drown: no-one shall save
> me', the onlookers obeyed his wishes and let him drown.

I thought that the point of the story was that "will" implied
volition.  He wants to drown, so they let him.

The OED cites both senses of "will" back a long way, so the lack of
distinction isn't a recent innovation.  They cite

    In 2nd and 3rd pers., as auxiliary expressing mere futurity,
    forming (with pres. inf.) the future, and (with pf. inf.) the
    future pf. tense: corresponding to _shall_ in the 1st pers.

back to ca. 1000.  The sense of

    As auxiliary of the future tense with implication of intention or
    volition (thus distinguished from SHALL v. B. 8, where see note)

back to the same time (971).  The note with "shall" is

    In OE. the notion of the future tense was ordinarily expressed by
    the present tense. To prevent ambiguity, _wile_ (will) was not
    unfrequently used as a future auxiliary, sometimes retaining no
    trace of its original sense. On the other hand, _sceal_ (shall)
    even when rendering a Latin future, can hardly be said to have
    been ever a mere tense-sign in OE.; it always expressed something
    of its original notion of obligation or necessity. In ME. the
    present early ceased to be commonly employed in futural sense,
    and the future was expressed by either _shall_ or _will_, the
    former being much more common. The usage as to the choice between
    the two auxiliaries has varied from time to time; since the
    middle of the 17th c. the general rule (subject to various
    exceptions) has been that mere futurity is expressed in the first
    person by _shall_, in the second and third by will. In indirectly
    reported speech, usage permits either the retention of the
    auxiliary used by the original speaker or the substitution of
    that which is appropriate to the point of view of the person
    reporting.

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Robert Bannister - 23 May 2009 01:39 GMT
>> "By the time I'm going home, the rain shall/will have stopped."
>
>> Are both shall/will allowed in current-day BrE, in this context?
>
> Both are correct, I think, but only "will" is colloquial.

Are they really? That's not the way I learnt to distinguish between
"shall" and "will". In addition, I find the tense in the first clause
quite strange - I'd have had "By the time I go home, the rain will have
stopped". I would only use "shall" with the First Person unless I wanted
the rather archaic sense of "is supposed to" or "must".

Signature

Rob Bannister

Peter Groves - 23 May 2009 03:26 GMT
>>> "By the time I'm going home, the rain shall/will have stopped."
>>
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> stopped". I would only use "shall" with the First Person unless I wanted
> the rather archaic sense of "is supposed to" or "must".

Only God, or Jupiter Pluvius, could properly utter the first sentence.

Peter G.
Jerry Friedman - 23 May 2009 04:01 GMT
> "By the time I'm going home, the rain shall/will have stopped."
>
> Are both shall/will allowed in current-day BrE, in this context?

Google counts:

"rain will have stopped": 1490
"rain shall have stopped": 0

I don't know much about BrE, but I suspect the "shall" is extremely
uncommon.

--
Jerry Friedman
Evan Kirshenbaum - 23 May 2009 05:53 GMT
>> "By the time I'm going home, the rain shall/will have stopped."
>>
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> I don't know much about BrE, but I suspect the "shall" is extremely
> uncommon.

The one hit in Google Books is from Otto Jespersen's _Efficiency in
Linguistic Change_, unfortunately only available in a snippet:

   ... go out when the rain stops or when the rain has stopped, and
   the pedantic, in which futurity is expressly stated: when the rain
   shall have stopped. ...

Interestingly, looking for just "rain shall have" turns up a number of
things that the rain shall have done, at least in the nineteenth and
early twentieth centuries:

   rain shall have ...

       become frozen
       levelled yon mountains to a plain
       fallen
       descended
       passed over said drawbridge
       ceased
       made it safe to return
       intervened
       lowered the temperature
       drenched
       washed us clean from all spot and blemish
       ceased to fall
       occurred
       cleared it off
       moistened them
       become the pure reiver of water of life
       coaxed the grass to grow a little
       driven the birds from their shelter
       prevented the evaporation from proceeding to such a length

etc.  Nearly all of these aren't simple statements, though.  They're
constructions like "until/unless/when/after/as soon as the rain shall
have"

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