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origin of German measles

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Peter Morris - 24 May 2009 04:02 GMT
What is the origin of the term German Measles?

I've heard two different origins for the term. One is that
it was identified by German doctors. The other is that
it is the word 'german' in the sense of being similar or
germaine to measles.

It was originally known as Rötheln, and then as Rubella
from 1866. When did the name German measles start?

For that matter, would something from that region be called
"German" at that date? Germany as such didn't exist.
Wouldn't a name like "Prussian" or "Bavarian" be more likely?
Robert Lieblich - 24 May 2009 04:49 GMT
> What is the origin of the term German Measles?
>
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> "German" at that date? Germany as such didn't exist.
> Wouldn't a name like "Prussian" or "Bavarian" be more likely?

Do you trust Wikipedia?  Here's what it says: "Rubella is also known
as German measles because the disease was first described by German
physicians in the mid-eighteenth century."  If this isn't good enough,
try searching the Web.  Google claims to have 384,000 hits for "German
measles."

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Bob Lieblich
Measly German

Peter Morris - 24 May 2009 04:51 GMT
>> What is the origin of the term German Measles?
>>
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
>
> Do you trust Wikipedia?

Not as an authoritative source.
Joachim Pense - 24 May 2009 05:05 GMT
Peter Morris (in alt.usage.english):

> "Robert Lieblich" <r_s_lieblich@yahoo.com> wrote in message

>> Do you trust Wikipedia?
>
> Not as an authoritative source.

But Usenet is one?

Joachim
HVS - 27 May 2009 14:29 GMT
On 24 May 2009, Joachim Pense wrote

> Peter Morris (in alt.usage.english):
>
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>
> But Usenet is one?

With an explanatory cite, yes:  see Evan's response.

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Cheers, Harvey
CanEng and BrEng, indiscriminately mixed

Evan Kirshenbaum - 24 May 2009 05:08 GMT
> What is the origin of the term German Measles?
>
> I've heard two different origins for the term. One is that it was
> identified by German doctors. The other is that it is the word
> 'german' in the sense of being similar or germaine to measles.

Apparently neither.  See below.

> It was originally known as Rötheln, and then as Rubella from
> 1866. When did the name German measles start?

The OED cites it to 1875.  Google Books can push that back to 1851:

   [Attn Jesse Sheidlower: OED antedating]

   In some cases it might be best described as 'something between
   measles and scarlet fever', followed by desquamation of the
   cuticle in branny scales, and resembling what I have read of as
   _Rötheln_, or German measles.

                    _The Sanitary Review_, 1857

An 1870 treatment explains the etymology:

   It was first described by German physicians about the end of the
   last and the beginning of the present century, and particularly by
   Ziegler, Heim, and Hildenbrand.  The last of these writers called
   the new disease "rubeola," and retained the name "morbilli" for
   measles propers; and this nomenclature has been adopted by many
   subsequent German writers, including Schönlein; whereas English
   writers, with the exception of Dr. Copland, have followed Cullens
   nosology, and called ordinary measles "rubeola."  Hence the
   rubeola of many German writers is not the rubeola of English
   nosologists, and when the new disease came to be recognized in
   England it was often designated "German rubeola or measles."

                   Charles Murchison, "Case of Rötheln, or German
                   Measles", _Lancet_, October 29, reprinted in _The
                   Half-Yearly Abstract of the Medical Sciences_,
                   July-December, 1870.

So it was "German measles" in the sense of "what German physicians
called 'measles', as opposed to what English physicians called
'measles'."

> For that matter, would something from that region be called "German"
> at that date? Germany as such didn't exist.  Wouldn't a name like
> "Prussian" or "Bavarian" be more likely?

Apparently German was a common name for things related to all of the
German-speaking countries.

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J. J. Lodder - 24 May 2009 10:53 GMT
> What is the origin of the term German Measles?
>
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> "German" at that date? Germany as such didn't exist.
> Wouldn't a name like "Prussian" or "Bavarian" be more likely?

What do you mean Germany didn't exist?
It didn't exist as a unified state,
but it certainly existed as a geographical indication.

Jan
James Hogg - 24 May 2009 11:19 GMT
Quoth nospam@de-ster.demon.nl (J. J. Lodder), and I quote:

>> What is the origin of the term German Measles?
>>
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
>It didn't exist as a unified state,
>but it certainly existed as a geographical indication.

And as the name of the language and its speakers. German was a
designation of nationality long before there was a unified German
state:

"1581 MULCASTER Positions xxxviii. (1887) 168 The Germaine or
French gentlewymen"

"1851 MAYHEW Lond. Labour I. 361 The tools..are sometimes
displayed on a small barrow, sometimes on a stall, and are mostly
German-made."

And here's how the Jacobites contemptuously referred to the
Hanoverian succession:

"Wha the deil hae we gotten for a king
But a wee, wee German lairdie
And when we gaed to bring him hame
He was delving in his yairdie"

Signature

James

John Dean - 24 May 2009 23:34 GMT
> Quoth nospam@de-ster.demon.nl (J. J. Lodder), and I quote:
>
[quoted text clipped - 22 lines]
> "1581 MULCASTER Positions xxxviii. (1887) 168 The Germaine or
> French gentlewymen"

And 'germania' was the Roman name for the relevant area of northern Europe.
Caligula had 'Germanicus' as one of his names, from his father who was known
as Germanicus after *his* father who was given the name as an honorific
after his successful campaigns in the area.
Signature

John Dean
Oxford

J. J. Lodder - 27 May 2009 11:02 GMT
> > Quoth nospam@de-ster.demon.nl (J. J. Lodder), and I quote:
> >
[quoted text clipped - 27 lines]
> as Germanicus after *his* father who was given the name as an honorific
> after his successful campaigns in the area.

And after his death,

Jan
Rambler III - 27 May 2009 13:58 GMT
>> > Quoth nospam@de-ster.demon.nl (J. J. Lodder), and I quote:
>> >
[quoted text clipped - 33 lines]
>
> Jan

"Rubella is also known as German measles because the disease was first
described by German physicians in the mid-eighteenth century."
Wikipedia
HVS - 27 May 2009 14:28 GMT
On 27 May 2009, Rambler III wrote

>>>> Quoth nospam@de-ster.demon.nl (J. J. Lodder), and I quote:
>>>>
[quoted text clipped - 38 lines]
> first described by German physicians in the mid-eighteenth
> century." Wikipedia

Misleading, like a lot of Wikipee;  a good example of the writer
displaying his lack of knowledge.

As Evan explained in his response elsethread, it didn't refer to the
physicians who described it;  it distinguished the national usages
for what what meant by "measles".

Signature

Cheers, Harvey
CanEng and BrEng, indiscriminately mixed

Rambler III - 27 May 2009 14:46 GMT
> On 27 May 2009, Rambler III wrote
>
[quoted text clipped - 47 lines]
> physicians who described it;  it distinguished the national usages
> for what what meant by "measles".

Me or thee?

Wikipedia has 30 citations. Your posting has none. So who am I to believe?
Leslie Danks - 27 May 2009 15:11 GMT
[...]

> Me or thee?
>
> Wikipedia has 30 citations. Your posting has none. So who am I to
> believe?

Take heart: anyone can believe.

Signature

Les (BrE but friend of whom)

Evan Kirshenbaum - 27 May 2009 16:22 GMT
>> On 27 May 2009, Rambler III wrote
>>
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
> Wikipedia has 30 citations. Your posting has none. So who am I to
> believe?

Wikipedia has no citation for that statement.  It does have a citation
for

   In 1814, George de Maton first suggested that it be considered a
   disease distinct from both measles and scarlet fever. All these
   physicians were German, and the disease was known as Rötheln (from
   the German name Röteln), hence the common name of "German
   measles".

but as it's an off-line source, it's difficult to tell whether that
source supports the "hence" or simply that George de Maton, in 1814
was the first to call it a separate disease.  

Harvey, on the other hand, does have a citation ("as Evan explained in
his response elsethread"), to an article that includes a quotation
from an 1870 source:

   It was first described by German physicians about the end of the
   last and the beginning of the present century, and particularly by
   Ziegler, Heim, and Hildenbrand.  The last of these writers called
   the new disease "rubeola," and retained the name "morbilli" for
   measles propers; and this nomenclature has been adopted by many
   subsequent German writers, including Schönlein; whereas English
   writers, with the exception of Dr. Copland, have followed Cullens
   nosology, and called ordinary measles "rubeola."  Hence the
   rubeola of many German writers is not the rubeola of English
   nosologists, and when the new disease came to be recognized in
   England it was often designated "German rubeola or measles."

                   Charles Murchison, "Case of Rötheln, or German
                   Measles", _Lancet_, October 29, reprinted in _The
                   Half-Yearly Abstract of the Medical Sciences_,
                   July-December, 1870.

The OED had only cited "German measles" to 1875 (although I was able
to find it back to 1857), so at a time when the disease was first
being spoken of as "German measles" in English, a medical practitioner
explained the name, in a medical journal, as having been due to the
difference between what English writers and German writers called
"measles" (or, more precisely, "rubeola").  German measles was what
Germans called "measles".

You can believe who you like, but personally, I think my explanation
is the more likely based on the evidence we've seen so far.

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James Hogg - 27 May 2009 16:35 GMT
Quoth Evan Kirshenbaum <kirshenbaum@hpl.hp.com>, and I quote:

>>> On 27 May 2009, Rambler III wrote
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 56 lines]
>You can believe who you like, but personally, I think my explanation
>is the more likely based on the evidence we've seen so far.

I agree that you have found the most likely explanation. Now if
you could only add it to the Wikipedia article...

Signature

James

Pat Durkin - 27 May 2009 17:22 GMT
>> Wikipedia has 30 citations. Your posting has none. So who am I to
>> believe?
[quoted text clipped - 43 lines]
> You can believe who you like, but personally, I think my explanation
> is the more likely based on the evidence we've seen so far.

I like it.  As first grader during WWII, neighbors had a quarantine sign
posted on their house that warned of  "Rothen Measles".  I remember the
"h" but not an "i", and someone back then said it was German measles.
Someone else said that "Röthen" was "red" in German.  So...I always
thought of it as "red measles".  The sign was posted in German and
English (but I don't recall any English on the sign) because about half
the population in the town was German.  The rest of us were Italian and
Irish, except for the summertime Barbadian peapickers.

I didn't catch the measles during that outbreak, but I understand
"German measles" was considered the most dangerous, not because it could
kill, but because it caused birth defects if pregnant women caught it
early in the pregnancy.
Rambler III - 27 May 2009 17:50 GMT
>>> On 27 May 2009, Rambler III wrote
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 56 lines]
> You can believe who you like, but personally, I think my explanation
> is the more likely based on the evidence we've seen so far.

My response was to:

"Misleading, like a lot of Wikipee; a good example of the writer displaying
his lack of knowledge."
HVS - 27 May 2009 18:37 GMT
On 27 May 2009, Rambler III wrote

>>>> On 27 May 2009, Rambler III wrote
>>>>
[quoted text clipped - 14 lines]
>> Wikipedia has no citation for that statement.  It does have a
>> citation for

-snip-

>> Harvey, on the other hand, does have a citation ("as Evan
>> explained in his response elsethread"), to an article that
>> includes a quotation from an 1870 source:

-snip-

>> You can believe who you like, but personally, I think my
>> explanation is the more likely based on the evidence we've seen
>> so far.

> My response was to:
>
> "Misleading, like a lot of Wikipee; a good example of the writer
> displaying his lack of knowledge."

Then you should have placed the response after that comment,
instead of after my citing of Evan's post.

But whatever;  I'm happy to stand by my swipe at Wikipedia -- it's  
basically a pub conversation, not a reference source.

Signature

Cheers, Harvey
CanEng and BrEng, indiscriminately mixed

Garrett Wollman - 27 May 2009 20:23 GMT
>But whatever;  I'm happy to stand by my swipe at Wikipedia -- it's  
>basically a pub conversation, not a reference source.

That's a mighty broad brush you're painting with....

-GAWollman

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Garrett A. Wollman   | The real tragedy of human existence is not that we are
wollman@csail.mit.edu| nasty by nature, but that a cruel structural asymmetry
Opinions not those   | grants to rare events of meanness such power to shape
of MIT or CSAIL.     | our history. - S.J. Gould, Ten Thousand Acts of Kindness

HVS - 27 May 2009 22:15 GMT
On 27 May 2009, Garrett Wollman wrote

>> But whatever;  I'm happy to stand by my swipe at Wikipedia --
>> it's  basically a pub conversation, not a reference source.
>
> That's a mighty broad brush you're painting with....

Yeah, I know.  That's still my view, though -- I don't trust it or
use it as anything even remotely approaching a citable reference
source, and I doubt the research seriousness of anyone who does.

There ya' go....

Signature

Cheers, Harvey
CanEng and BrEng, indiscriminately mixed

Garrett Wollman - 28 May 2009 03:40 GMT
>Yeah, I know.  That's still my view, though -- I don't trust
>[Wikipedia] or use it as anything even remotely approaching a citable
>reference source, and I doubt the research seriousness of anyone who
>does.

For professional writing in your line of work, that's entirely
reasonable.  For settling arguments in USENET debates, however, I
don't think you can justify any requirement of "seriousness".  In
situations where research cited to an encyclopedia would be
appropriate (e.g., primary school), Wikipedia is a reasonable source.
For indulging one's own curiosity, it is unparalleled -- far better
than any other resource for breadth (if not depth) of coverage.  And,
of course, you have access to the complete revision history, something
no other publisher provides.

-GAWollman

Signature

Garrett A. Wollman   | The real tragedy of human existence is not that we are
wollman@csail.mit.edu| nasty by nature, but that a cruel structural asymmetry
Opinions not those   | grants to rare events of meanness such power to shape
of MIT or CSAIL.     | our history. - S.J. Gould, Ten Thousand Acts of Kindness

HVS - 28 May 2009 08:33 GMT
On 28 May 2009, Garrett Wollman wrote

>> Yeah, I know.  That's still my view, though -- I don't trust
>> [Wikipedia] or use it as anything even remotely approaching a
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> reasonable.  For settling arguments in USENET debates, however,
> I don't think you can justify any requirement of "seriousness".

We differ on this;  I think it's perfectly reasonable to expect
debating points on usage in AUE that cite references to refer to,
well, citable references.  "An anonymously-authored article claims
that somebody else whose stuff I didn't look at says so" doesn't
strike me as good enough for this forum.

I can see that Wikipedia can be used as a bibliography that can be
used to find citable sources;  the bibliography itself, though,
isn't citable.

> In situations where research cited to an encyclopedia would be
> appropriate (e.g., primary school), Wikipedia is a reasonable
> source.

I'm not particularly objecting to its use in primary school reports
(although I'd say that's instilling sloppy, "good enough" habits in
the kids).  I don't accept, though, that any useful discussion in
AUE about usage can be based on sources that are suitable only for
primary-school-project research.

> For indulging one's own curiosity, it is unparalleled --
> far better than any other resource for breadth (if not depth) of
> coverage.

No argument there;  just don't use it in AUE as "This is the source
of usage X; Wikipedia says so", and we'll get along fine....

Signature

Cheers, Harvey
CanEng and BrEng, indiscriminately mixed

james - 27 May 2009 22:22 GMT
>>But whatever;  I'm happy to stand by my swipe at Wikipedia -- it's
>>basically a pub conversation, not a reference source.
>
>That's a mighty broad brush you're painting with....

For a few hours following my stroke and a period in intensive care, some
joker amended the entry for me in the Wikipedia to record my death.
Grossly exaggerated, of course.

Signature

James Follett

Rambler III - 29 May 2009 13:23 GMT
[snip]

> But whatever;  I'm happy to stand by my swipe at Wikipedia -- it's
> basically a pub conversation, not a reference source.

At least you spelled it right this time, 'arvie [sic].

An ad hominem remark or "sour grapes"?
HVS - 29 May 2009 13:49 GMT
On 29 May 2009, Rambler III wrote

> [snip]
>
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>
> An ad hominem remark or "sour grapes"?

I've no idea what that refers to -- my denigration of the thing as
a citable source?

That doesn't qualify as ad hominem -- Wikipee ain't a hominem, so I
don't see how one can ad it -- and I certainly don't harbour any
sour-grape feelings.  I've just got a very low opinion of it in
general, and a lower-than-zero level of respect for it as a citable
reference.

I realise that others differ -- that they find it not only useful
as a starting point but sufficiently reliable to cite as a
reference work.  I reserve the right, though, to think they're
wrong, and to have virtually no respect for their research
integrity when they cite it.

Signature

Cheers, Harvey
CanEng and BrEng, indiscriminately mixed

Mike Lyle - 29 May 2009 21:32 GMT
> On 29 May 2009, Rambler III wrote
>
[quoted text clipped - 17 lines]
> don't see how one can ad it -- and I certainly don't harbour any
> sour-grape feelings.  [...]

An ad encyclopediam, no? Or ad locum intertelarem.

Signature

Mike.

HVS - 29 May 2009 23:00 GMT
On 29 May 2009, Mike Lyle wrote

>> On 29 May 2009, Rambler III wrote
>>
[quoted text clipped - 19 lines]
>
> An ad encyclopediam, no? Or ad locum intertelarem.

sh.t.  I wish I'd studied and understood Latin, rather than just
picked up a bit here and there.

(insert hands-up/shruggy emoticon here, assuming such a thing
exists...)

Signature

Cheers, Harvey
CanEng and BrEng, indiscriminately mixed

Don Phillipson - 24 May 2009 13:15 GMT
> What is the origin of the term German Measles? . . .
> For that matter, would something from that region be called
> "German" at that date? Germany as such didn't exist.
> Wouldn't a name like "Prussian" or "Bavarian" be more likely?

Romans 2000 years ago called the land east of the River
Rhine Germania.  The word Germany meant all the
German-language countries long before their political union
was proclaimed (1871.)

Signature

Don Phillipson
Carlsbad Springs
(Ottawa, Canada)

 
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