The meaning of filibuster
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fl - 27 May 2009 21:48 GMT Hi, I see the following article on the web. Although I check the word filibuster in a dictionary, I am still unclear its meaing in this sentence at the end of this post. In the dictionary, the difinition of filibuster is:
to try to delay action in Congress or another law-making group by making very long speeches:
It seems that the meaning of filibuster in the article is different from the dictionary. What is your opnion? Thanks.
WASHINGTON (AP) - The top Republican on the Senate Judiciary Committee said Wednesday he doesn't foresee a filibuster against Supreme Court nominee Sonia Sotomayor, even though he thinks her legal philosophy should be closely examined.
Skitt - 27 May 2009 21:58 GMT > Hi, > I see the following article on the web. Although I check the word [quoted text clipped - 14 lines] > nominee Sonia Sotomayor, even though he thinks her legal philosophy > should be closely examined. It has the meaning as shown in the dictionary.
 Signature Skitt (AmE)
Mark Brader - 27 May 2009 23:31 GMT Farhad L.:
> > In the dictionary, the difinition of filibuster is:
> > to try to delay action in Congress or another law-making group by > > making very long speeches:
> > It seems that the meaning of filibuster in the article is different > > from the dictionary. What is your opnion? Thanks. > > > > WASHINGTON (AP) - The top Republican on the Senate Judiciary > > Committee said Wednesday he doesn't foresee a filibuster > > against Supreme Court nominee Sonia Sotomayor... "Skitt":
> It has the meaning as shown in the dictionary. Perhaps Farhad does not realize that in the US when the president nominates someone for the Supreme Court, the Senate must vote to consent to this choice before the person actually joins the court. So if there was a filibuster in the Senate, it would delay this action, exactly as the dictionary had it.
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My text in this article is in the public domain.
Hatunen - 27 May 2009 23:50 GMT >Farhad L.: >> > In the dictionary, the difinition of filibuster is: [quoted text clipped - 17 lines] >So if there was a filibuster in the Senate, it would delay this >action, exactly as the dictionary had it. This can be elaborated on. Once a Senator has the floor to speak (filibusters are not possible in the House of Representatives) no other business can be conducted. A filibusterer must retain control of the floor so long that the rest of the Senate decides they have more pressing matters than whatever the speaker opposes. Stories of filibusters are legendary, with the speaker reciting recipes, telling stories, etc. The speechifiers can yield the floor to another filibusterer from time to time.
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Lars Eighner - 27 May 2009 22:02 GMT In our last episode, <3639a4a3-baf9-4fb7-aa4d-c062bfe1b31d@v4g2000vba.googlegroups.com>, the lovely and talented fl broadcast on alt.usage.english:
> Hi, > I see the following article on the web. Although I check the word > filibuster in a dictionary, I am still unclear its meaing in this > sentence at the end of this post. In the dictionary, the difinition of > filibuster is:
> to try to delay action in Congress or another law-making group by > making very long speeches:
> It seems that the meaning of filibuster in the article is different > from the dictionary. What is your opnion? Thanks. It seems to me it means exactly what the definition indicates.
> WASHINGTON (AP) - The top Republican on the Senate Judiciary Committee > said Wednesday he doesn't foresee a filibuster against Supreme Court > nominee Sonia Sotomayor, even though he thinks her legal philosophy > should be closely examined. He does not think Republicans will block confirmation of the by (threatening) to speak until the nomination is withdrawn.
In truth, filibusters in the US Senate seldom actually occur. The minority simply anounce that they intend to filibuster. The (majority) leadership will then not bring the matter to floor so long as there is a real threat of filibuster.
A filibuster in the US Senate can be defeated if the majority has 60 votes (of 100) to limit debate. In this case, Sotomayor's nomination has 60 votes (because Democrats have 59 votes and 1 Republican has agreed to support the nomination) so mention of a filibuster is an idle threat.
The "top Republican" does not predict a filibuster --- perhaps because he knows he does not have the votes to sustain one. He predicts he will not do what he cannot do.
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Evan Kirshenbaum - 28 May 2009 04:48 GMT > the lovely and talented fl broadcast on alt.usage.english: > [quoted text clipped - 15 lines] > (majority) leadership will then not bring the matter to floor so > long as there is a real threat of filibuster. According to Wikipedia (which agrees with my memory), they're not all that rare:
Filibusters have become much more common in recent decades. Twice as many filibusters took place in the 1991-1992 legislative session as took place in the entire nineteenth century.[16] ...
The filibuster has tremendously increased in frequency of use since the 1960s. In the 1960s, no Senate term had more than seven filibusters. One of the most notable filibusters of the 1960s was when southern Democratic Senators attempted, unsuccessfully, to block the passage of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 by making a filibuster that lasted for 75 hours. In the first decade of the 21st century, no Senate term had fewer than 49 filibusters. The 1999-2002 Senate terms both had 58 filibusters.[21] The 110th Congress broke the record for filibuster cloture votes reaching 112 at the end of 2008. [22] [23]
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Filibuster
One of the things that's apparently changed is that you no longer have to actually speak in order to filibuster; you only have to declare that you are filibustering. Apparently the other side can require you to actually speak, but presumably they don't because they know that they'd be required to in retaliation when the shoe was on the other foot.
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Mark Brader - 28 May 2009 08:49 GMT Evan Kirshenbaum:
> One of the things that's apparently changed is that you no longer have > to actually speak in order to filibuster; you only have to declare > that you are filibustering... Now imagine "Mr. Smith Goes to Washington" remade with that rule!
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james - 27 May 2009 22:31 GMT In message <3639a4a3-baf9-4fb7-aa4d-c062bfe1b31d@v4g2000vba.googlegroups.com>, fl <rxjwg98@gmail.com> writes
>Hi, >I see the following article on the web. Although I check the word [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] >It seems that the meaning of filibuster in the article is different >from the dictionary. What is your opnion? Thanks. The English parliament has the guillotine ever since the talented member, Desmond Donnelly, used the filibuster. -- JF
Garrett Wollman - 28 May 2009 04:01 GMT >The English parliament has the guillotine ever since the talented >member, Desmond Donnelly, used the filibuster. The U.S. Senate has had cloture (note unusual consonant) for many years. The fraction of Senators present required to invoke it has varied, and there's at least a one-day delay after cloture is invoked before the matter is brought up again. (One must remember that the Senate, like many upper houses, handles nearly all of its routine business on a unanimous-consent basis. This includes the motions necessary to bring a bill up for consideration.)[1]
The House of Representatives has always had time limits on debate, and most bills with significant opposition are considered under special rules that restrict amendments, waive points of order, and define how the time is to be divided. (An additional confounding factor is that nearly all floor debate occurs in the grandly named Committee of the Whole House on the State of the Union; rules generally provide that when the Committee of the Whole rises, no further amendments are permitted before the House votes on passage.)
-GAWollman
[1] Query: in Westminster, what happens if the House of Lords fails to take up a bill passed by the Commons? Is it treated for Parliament Acts purposes the same as if the upper house actually voted the measure down?
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Peter Duncanson (BrE) - 28 May 2009 11:14 GMT >[1] Query: in Westminster, what happens if the House of Lords fails to >take up a bill passed by the Commons? Is it treated for Parliament >Acts purposes the same as if the upper house actually voted the >measure down? I believe so.
The Parliament Act (PA) 1911 as amended by the PA 1949: http://www.parliament.uk/commons/lib/research/briefings/snpc-00675.pdf
2(3) A Bill shall be deemed to be rejected by the House of Lords if it is not passed by the House of Lords either without amendment or with such amendments only as may be agreed to by both Houses.
That would surely include a case where the Lords has not even discussed the bill.
The following document describes the situation where the Lords start discussing a bill but do not complete the stages of consideration within the time allowed: http://www.parliament.uk/commons/lib/research/briefings/snpc-00675.pdf
3. Rejection of a bill The Parliament Acts set out the procedures which are available should the House of Lords reject a bill; and section 2(3) of the 1911 Act states that for this purpose a bill is deemed to be rejected by the House of Lords if it is not passed by that House either without amendment or with such amendments only as may be agreed to by both Houses. The clearest case is when the House of Lords declines to give a bill a second reading, (as with the European Parliamentary Elections Bill 1998-99). With the War Crimes Bill 1990-91 (the Bill presented in the second session) the Lords agreed an amendment that delayed the bill being read a second time by six months (as it happened, beyond the prospective end of the session.) Amendments such as this are tantamount to rejection in both Houses,[1] and a Speakers statement was made the following day which indicated that what had been done in the Lords was regarded as rejection of the Bill. The Lords took the same action with the Criminal Justice (Mode of Trial) (No 2) Bill 1999-2000.
[1] The statement "Amendments such as this are tantamount to rejection in both Houses" is potentially ambiguous. It means "An amendment such as this is tantamount to rejection by the House which makes it".
 Signature Peter Duncanson, UK (in alt.usage.english)
Steve Hayes - 28 May 2009 05:41 GMT >Hi, >I see the following article on the web. Although I check the word [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > to try to delay action in Congress or another law-making group by >making very long speeches: Which came first - the making of long speeches or people who raid into neighbouring countries,
The classic filibuster was Leander Starr Jameson.
http://query.nytimes.com/gst/abstract.html?res=9A06EED81231E033A25757C1A9679C946 79ED7CF
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Evan Kirshenbaum - 28 May 2009 06:23 GMT >>Hi, I see the following article on the web. Although I check the >>word filibuster in a dictionary, I am still unclear its meaing in [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > Which came first - the making of long speeches or people who raid into > neighbouring countries, The latter, although that's not quite how the OED describes it:
2. a. One of a class of piratical adventurers who pillaged the Spanish colonies in the West Indies during the 17th c.
That's cited to 1792. There's a second subsense of
b. A member of any of those bands of adventurers who between 1850 and 1860 organized expeditions from the United States, in violation of international law, for the purpose of revolutionizing certain states in Central America and the Spanish West Indies.
cited to 1854, but the legislative sense (as a verb) of
2. To obstruct progress in a legislative assembly; to practise obstruction.
is cited to 1853, so both the extension and the transferred sense appear to have happened at about the same time.
I did come across a slight antedating for the legislative sense:
[Attn Jesse Sheidlower: OED antedating]
Mr. CARTTER. I am ready to acquiesce in any reasonable humbug for the benefit of the West, [laughter,] any plausible humbug; but when you come to talk about light-houses upon the Ohio river I am ready to filibuster.
_The Congressional Globe, 8/4/1852
There are also antedatings for the "excursion sense", though without looking closely at them, I'm not sure which ones are talking about the earlier sense and which an extended sense.
There also appears to be a somewhat earlier medical sense. I was surprised to see
The picture-book that seems to have been our first, was about one Mr. Filibuster (in the medical profession, we presume, from the name),
But then I started to see things like
We never cured a case of prolapsus by the pessary, or of long-standing leucorroea, connected with inflammatory or ulcerative disease of the cervix, by constitutional treatment and the ordinary local appliances. Such _fillibustering_ [sic] may succeed in recent and trivial cases, but when the disease is more strongly intrenched, it can only be dislodged by a superior force operating directly and systematically upon it.
_Ohio Medical and Surgical Journal_, July, 1853
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J. J. Lodder - 28 May 2009 13:42 GMT > >>Hi, I see the following article on the web. Although I check the > >>word filibuster in a dictionary, I am still unclear its meaing in [quoted text clipped - 27 lines] > is cited to 1853, so both the extension and the transferred sense > appear to have happened at about the same time. And before that it is supposed to be from French 'flibustier', from Spanish 'filibustero', which is supposed to have been derived from Dutch 'vrijbuiter' (who in the 17th were pirates with a licence, freebooters)
Jan
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