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Auden: One Circumlocution

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Marius Hancu - 21 Jul 2009 17:09 GMT
Hello:

---
One Circumlocution
by W.H. Auden

Sometimes we see astonishingly clearly
The out-there-now we are already in;
Now that is not what we are here-for really.

All its to-do is bound to re-occur,
Is nothing therefore that we need to say;
How then to make its compromise refer

To what could not be otherwise instead
And has its being as its own to be,
The once-for-all that is not seen nor said?

[...]
p. 475
----

I think that "out-there-now" is the universe/the world as around us.

I am surprised that:
"what we are here-for"
is not
"what-we-are-here-for"
I mean if one starts to put hyphens, why not cover the whole
expression?
This seems to be our unique/individual purpose (my reading).

I assume "to-do" to mean "bustle, commotion." Possible?

The "once-for-all" seems to be related by the commentators to the
Christian concept for the eternity in the moment, something borrowed
from other thinkers.

Now, I am sighing at
"has its being as its own to be"
How would you read it, in general and in this particular context?
I look at it as:
"has its essence to own/control and to live through it"
however, I'm not sure if that's accurate at all, and even so, what it
would mean?:-)

--
Thanks.
Marius Hancu
John O'Flaherty - 21 Jul 2009 20:29 GMT
>Hello:
>
[quoted text clipped - 26 lines]
>I mean if one starts to put hyphens, why not cover the whole
>expression?

>This seems to be our unique/individual purpose (my reading).

Maybe, or maybe it's just not his focus in writing the poem.

>I assume "to-do" to mean "bustle, commotion." Possible?

I would think it might mean everything that is happening.

>The "once-for-all" seems to be related by the commentators to the
>Christian concept for the eternity in the moment, something borrowed
>from other thinkers.

It seems awfully parochial to identify that concept as "Christian",
even if the poet himself did so.

>Now, I am sighing at
>"has its being as its own to be"
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>however, I'm not sure if that's accurate at all, and even so, what it
>would mean?:-)

I read it as
Has its being as its own [to be]
a tautology - has its existence as itself. I'm surprise that there's
not a hyphen in "to-be", the way they're sprinkled else-where, but I
still think it's meant to be contrasted to the foregoing "to-do".

Signature

John

Don Phillipson - 21 Jul 2009 21:55 GMT
> >The "once-for-all" seems to be related by the commentators to the
> >Christian concept for the eternity in the moment, something borrowed
> >from other thinkers.
>
> It seems awfully parochial to identify that concept as "Christian",
> even if the poet himself did so.

This prompts the question:  when either a poet or commentators
identify a concept as Christian, what other circumstances than the
"parochial" are available to illuminate it?

Signature

Don Phillipson
Carlsbad Springs
(Ottawa, Canada)

John O'Flaherty - 22 Jul 2009 18:01 GMT
>> >The "once-for-all" seems to be related by the commentators to the
>> >Christian concept for the eternity in the moment, something borrowed
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
>identify a concept as Christian, what other circumstances than the
>"parochial" are available to illuminate it?

I'm not sure I understand the question - do you mean, what other words
could be used to convey my meaning? I intended meaning 3 from AHD:
narrowly restricted in scope or outlook; provincial.
If you mean that you don't think the identification is parochial, then
I'll explain why I think it is so:
"Eternity in the moment" is a very general sort of concept, based on
the existence of time, and human perception of it in a paradoxical
way. Why would it be identified with one particular religion, rather
than any or all of them, or outside of a religious context entirely?
Signature

John

Marius Hancu - 22 Jul 2009 10:16 GMT
> >Sometimes we see astonishingly clearly
> >The out-there-now we are already in;
[quoted text clipped - 15 lines]
>
> I would think it might mean everything that is happening.

> >Now, I am sighing at
> >"has its being as its own to be"
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> not a hyphen in "to-be", the way they're sprinkled else-where, but I
> still think it's meant to be contrasted to the foregoing "to-do".

Would this mean "it's self-consistent" with no interference with the
"to-do" around us?
Perhaps.

How about, later in the same poem:

----
[the power of the poet]

Tell for the power how to thunderclaps
The graves flew open, the rivers ran up-hill;
Such stage importance is at most perhaps.
---

"is at most perhaps."
could this mean
"is at best possible?"

Thanks.
Marius Hancu
John O'Flaherty - 23 Jul 2009 20:19 GMT
>> >Sometimes we see astonishingly clearly
>> >The out-there-now we are already in;
[quoted text clipped - 28 lines]
>"to-do" around us?
>Perhaps.

I think, just unchanging, and as you say, independent of everything
that does change.

>How about, later in the same poem:
>
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>could this mean
>"is at best possible?"

It's getting to be really unusual language there, but I think you're
right.
Signature

John

Marius Hancu - 24 Jul 2009 01:04 GMT
> >How about, later in the same poem:
>
[quoted text clipped - 12 lines]
> It's getting to be really unusual language there, but I think you're
> right.

Well, at least we have some kind of agreement:-)

Thanks.
Marius Hancu
CDB - 22 Jul 2009 14:29 GMT
> ---
> One Circumlocution
[quoted text clipped - 17 lines]
>
> I think that "out-there-now" is the universe/the world as around us.

I agree; considering the rest of the poem, the physical universe.

> I am surprised that:
> "what we are here-for"
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> expression?
> This seems to be our unique/individual purpose (my reading).

Maybe.  There's also the literal reading:  we are not here to see the
physical universe clearly, because its "to-do" need not be spoken of
(by poets), since it will reoccur.

> I assume "to-do" to mean "bustle, commotion." Possible?

Yes, probably all the necessities of the out-there-now.

> The "once-for-all" seems to be related by the commentators to the
> Christian concept for the eternity in the moment, something borrowed
> from other thinkers.

God (in the non-anthropomorphic sense) immanent in the universe?

> Now, I am sighing at
> "has its being as its own to be"
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> however, I'm not sure if that's accurate at all, and even so, what
> it would mean?:-)

Maybe "has its existence as its reason for existing (in contrast with
us, who have something to do that we are here-for, even if we have
heard only what that is not).  I like John's point contrasting "to be"
with "to-do", and I think "to be" is also an answer to Hamlet's
question.
 
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