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"left permanently connected" or "permanently left connected"

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ella - 28 Jul 2009 10:00 GMT
Is one of these more correct than the other?

(1) "left permanently connected"

(2) "permanently left connected"

Am I right in thinking their difference is something to do with a split
infinitive.  (But without the infinitive. IYSWIM!)
R H Draney - 28 Jul 2009 10:05 GMT
ella filted:

>Is one of these more correct than the other?
>
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>Am I right in thinking their difference is something to do with a split
>infinitive.  (But without the infinitive. IYSWIM!)

The difference is that in (1) it's the "connected" aspect that's permanent,
while in (2) it's the "left"....r

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Eric Walker - 28 Jul 2009 11:05 GMT
> Is one of these more correct than the other?
>
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> Am I right in thinking their difference is something to do with a split
> infinitive.  (But without the infinitive. IYSWIM!)

No.  The difference is that they say two somewhat different things.

Phrase 1 refers to some things that were at some time connected in a
permanent[1] way, and says that while that connection status could have
been altered, it was not.

Phrase 2 refers to some objects that were at some time connected up in a
manner that, by implication, was not meant to be permanent, but which
were nevertheless left so connected ever after.

[1] Obviously, nothing in the cosmos is "permanent", so the word in this
context means in a manner intended to endure as long as the objects.

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Garrett Wollman - 28 Jul 2009 18:28 GMT
>Is one of these more correct than the other?
>
>(1) "left permanently connected"
>
>(2) "permanently left connected"

No, but they mean slightly different things.

>Am I right in thinking their difference is something to do with a split
>infinitive.  (But without the infinitive. IYSWIM!)

No.

Adverbs in English have a preference for binding to the right rather
than to the left.  So in (1), "permanently" modifies "connected",
whereas in (2), "permanently" modifies "left connected".  The
difference in this case is subtle, but phrase (1) is a more common
meaning.

-GAWollman
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wollman@csail.mit.edu| nasty by nature, but that a cruel structural asymmetry
Opinions not those   | grants to rare events of meanness such power to shape
of MIT or CSAIL.     | our history. - S.J. Gould, Ten Thousand Acts of Kindness

Athel Cornish-Bowden - 28 Jul 2009 18:56 GMT
> Is one of these more correct than the other?
>
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> Am I right in thinking their difference is something to do with a split
> infinitive.  (But without the infinitive. IYSWIM!)

It's not related in any way with a split infinitive.
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athel

 
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