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Candidate for worst English word: 'biweekly'

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djarvinen@gmail.com - 26 Jan 2010 18:12 GMT
Twice a week, or once every two weeks?  Even in context, you generally
can't decipher what is meant.  By the time you explain what you meant,
you've wasted more verbiage than you could have possibly saved by
using 'biweekly'.

Is there a process by which you can perma-ban words?

Any other candidates for 'worst English word'?
Hatunen - 26 Jan 2010 18:15 GMT
>Twice a week, or once every two weeks?  Even in context, you generally
>can't decipher what is meant.  By the time you explain what you meant,
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>
>Any other candidates for 'worst English word'?

Well, there's "bi-monthly" and "biannual"....

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  ************* DAVE HATUNEN (hatunen@cox.net) *************
  *       Tucson Arizona, out where the cacti grow         *
  * My typos & mispellings are intentional copyright traps *

R H Draney - 26 Jan 2010 18:36 GMT
Hatunen filted:

>>Twice a week, or once every two weeks?  Even in context, you generally
>>can't decipher what is meant.  By the time you explain what you meant,
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>
>Well, there's "bi-monthly" and "biannual"....

ObCrossThread: does "bilingual" mean "fluent in English as well as French" or
"half-fluent in one language"?...r

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Peter Moylan - 28 Jan 2010 07:39 GMT
> Hatunen filted:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> ObCrossThread: does "bilingual" mean "fluent in English as well as French" or
> "half-fluent in one language"?...r

That, at least, has an answer, because most people will be able to guess
the meaning of "semi-lingual" and "semi-sentient".

In fact, I'd guess that the majority of "bi-" words are unambiguous. The
group that includes "biennial" and "biweekly" is an exception.

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Peter Moylan, Newcastle, NSW, Australia.      http://www.pmoylan.org
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Joe Fineman - 26 Jan 2010 18:36 GMT
> Twice a week, or once every two weeks?  Even in context, you
> generally can't decipher what is meant.  By the time you explain
> what you meant, you've wasted more verbiage than you could have
> possibly saved by using 'biweekly'.

Fowler noticed this, and the general mess we have made of bi- with
other time units, in the original OED.  He recommended half-weekly and
fortnightly; I would prefer twice-weekly for the first.

> Is there a process by which you can perma-ban words?

No.
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||:  If you are going thru hell, keep going.  :||
James Silverton - 26 Jan 2010 18:46 GMT
>> Twice a week, or once every two weeks?  Even in context, you
>> generally can't decipher what is meant.  By the time you explain
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> other time units, in the original OED.  He recommended half-weekly and
> fortnightly; I would prefer twice-weekly for the first.

But on which days does a twice weekly event occur? Incidentally, I think
biennial still keeps its meaning as "every two years". "Fortnightly"
would sound unusual to an American ear.

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Jim Silverton
Potomac, Maryland

Peter Moylan - 28 Jan 2010 07:43 GMT
> But on which days does a twice weekly event occur? Incidentally, I think
> biennial still keeps its meaning as "every two years". "Fortnightly"
> would sound unusual to an American ear.

Which is a real pity, because "fortnightly" is one of the few members of
this group that remains totally unambiguous. "Biweekly" is clear enough
to me, but I'll bet that there are some people who would interpret it as
"twice a week".

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Peter Moylan, Newcastle, NSW, Australia.      http://www.pmoylan.org
For an e-mail address, see my web page.

Kalmia - 26 Jan 2010 19:29 GMT
On Jan 26, 1:12 pm, "djarvi...@gmail.com" <djarvi...@gmail.com> wrote:
> Twice a week, or once every two weeks?  Even in context, you generally
> can't decipher what is meant.  By the time you explain what you meant,
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>
> Any other candidates for 'worst English word'?

Inflammable -
Peter Duncanson (BrE) - 26 Jan 2010 19:48 GMT
>On Jan 26, 1:12 pm, "djarvi...@gmail.com" <djarvi...@gmail.com> wrote:
>> Twice a week, or once every two weeks?  Even in context, you generally
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
>
>Inflammable -

"Sanction" has a tendency to bipolarity.

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Peter Duncanson, UK
(in alt.usage.english)

R H Draney - 26 Jan 2010 20:17 GMT
BrE filted:

>>On Jan 26, 1:12 pm, "djarvi...@gmail.com" <djarvi...@gmail.com> wrote:
>>> Twice a week, or once every two weeks?  Even in context, you generally
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>
>"Sanction" has a tendency to bipolarity.

Great piece of double-double-entendre in the movie "Class", when Rob Lowe offers
advice to Andrew McCarthy on how to impress his father:  "talk about sanctions;
he's got a hard-on for sanctions"....r

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Fred - 26 Jan 2010 20:35 GMT
On Jan 26, 1:12 pm, "djarvi...@gmail.com" <djarvi...@gmail.com> wrote:
> Twice a week, or once every two weeks? Even in context, you generally
> can't decipher what is meant. By the time you explain what you meant,
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>
> Any other candidates for 'worst English word'?

Inflammable -

Refute -

Literally -
R H Draney - 26 Jan 2010 21:40 GMT
Fred filted:

>On Jan 26, 1:12 pm, "djarvi...@gmail.com" <djarvi...@gmail.com> wrote:
>> Twice a week, or once every two weeks? Even in context, you generally
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
>
>Literally -

Parameter -

Quantum -

Steep - (in connection with learning curves)

....r

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tony cooper - 26 Jan 2010 23:28 GMT
>Fred filted:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 19 lines]
>
>Steep - (in connection with learning curves)

Actually (when at the beginning of a sentence)

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Tony Cooper - Orlando, Florida

Fred - 26 Jan 2010 23:29 GMT
> Fred filted:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 19 lines]
>
> Steep - (in connection with learning curves)

Momentarily -
John - 26 Jan 2010 23:32 GMT
Both biweekly and fortnightly sound acceptable. Personally I prefer
fortnightly though.
Redshade - 27 Jan 2010 00:16 GMT
> Both biweekly and fortnightly sound acceptable. Personally I prefer
> fortnightly though.

biweekly
also bi-weekly, 1865, from bi- + weekly (see week). The sense "twice a
week" is the first attested, but that of "every two weeks" is equally
implied.

fortnight
17c. contraction of M.E. fourteniht, from O.E. feowertyne niht, lit.
"fourteen nights," preserving the ancient Gmc. custom of reckoning by
nights, mentioned by Tacitus in "Germania" xi.

I agree. It seems to have been an accepted term for several centuries
whereas the bi form has been ambiguous ever since its relatively newer
coining.
Steve Hayes - 27 Jan 2010 03:49 GMT
>> Both biweekly and fortnightly sound acceptable. Personally I prefer
>> fortnightly though.
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
>"fourteen nights," preserving the ancient Gmc. custom of reckoning by
>nights, mentioned by Tacitus in "Germania" xi.

I've seen people, mainly bloggers, reckoning in "sleeps".

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R H Draney - 27 Jan 2010 07:06 GMT
Steve Hayes filted:

>>> Both biweekly and fortnightly sound acceptable. Personally I prefer
>>> fortnightly though.
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
>
>I've seen people, mainly bloggers, reckoning in "sleeps".

Lately I've been averaging five or six of those a day....r

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Steve Hayes - 27 Jan 2010 00:01 GMT
>> Fred filted:
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 21 lines]
>>
>Momentarily -

Billion

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R H Draney - 27 Jan 2010 00:15 GMT
Steve Hayes filted:

>>> Fred filted:
>>>>
[quoted text clipped - 23 lines]
>
>Billion

Pavement (since we seem to have drifted into matters of pondiality)

....r

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Chuck Riggs - 27 Jan 2010 16:03 GMT
>Steve Hayes filted:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 27 lines]
>
>Pavement (since we seem to have drifted into matters of pondiality)

Modern Brits have no problem with billion, I daresay. That is, they no
longer have the deluded belief it is a million million. Whey they did,
it was years ago.
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Regards,

Chuck Riggs,
An American who lives near Dublin, Ireland and usually spells in BrE

Robert Bannister - 28 Jan 2010 02:06 GMT
>> Steve Hayes filted:
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 28 lines]
> longer have the deluded belief it is a million million. Whey they did,
> it was years ago.

Trouble is, I'm not modern. I can remember that a billion is no longer a
million million, but I can't remember exactly what it's supposed to be
now, so I just assume large (probably false as it's a government
spokesman saying it) number. Trillion was always opaque to me - might as
well say parsec. I do know what a milliard it because that is a word I
learned in other languages and it hasn't changed its meaning, but I'm
not about to start using it in English.

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Rob Bannister

Fred - 28 Jan 2010 03:04 GMT
>>> Steve Hayes filted:
>>>>
[quoted text clipped - 38 lines]
> other languages and it hasn't changed its meaning, but I'm not about to
> start using it in English.

I couldn't disagree with one word of that.
Steve Hayes - 28 Jan 2010 03:17 GMT
>Trouble is, I'm not modern. I can remember that a billion is no longer a
>million million, but I can't remember exactly what it's supposed to be
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>learned in other languages and it hasn't changed its meaning, but I'm
>not about to start using it in English.

I quote from a letter from a relative of my wife's, born in NSW in 1889,
married a German in London in 1911. She wrote to her aunt in Australia in
1923:

"I have been in Germany since 1920 with my husband and 4 children. We lost
everything in South West Africa during the war and have started again over
here. If things were not so wretched here we would be doing pretty well, but
as things are now everything one saves and puts by is worth nothing a few days
later. Millions are a thing of the past, and milliards will be the same soon.
One only reckons in billions."

She was probably bilingual in English and German, but her aunt in Australia
was almost certainly monolingual in English, and she clearly expected her
understand what she was writing about.

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Steve Hayes from Tshwane, South Africa
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E-mail - see web page, or parse: shayes at dunelm full stop org full stop uk

Chuck Riggs - 28 Jan 2010 12:27 GMT
>>> Steve Hayes filted:
>>>>
[quoted text clipped - 36 lines]
>learned in other languages and it hasn't changed its meaning, but I'm
>not about to start using it in English.

Ten to the sixth, ten to the ninth and ten to the twelve correspond to
a million, a billion and a trillion, is the way I remember it. A
difference of three in each case, which makes it simple for me.
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Regards,

Chuck Riggs,
An American who lives near Dublin, Ireland and usually spells in BrE

Robert Bannister - 29 Jan 2010 01:35 GMT
>>>> Steve Hayes filted:
>>>>>
[quoted text clipped - 37 lines]
> a million, a billion and a trillion, is the way I remember it. A
> difference of three in each case, which makes it simple for me.

One of the problems is that the prefix "bi-" means "two" or "twice" or
"double" in most words. The word could be abolished were it not so
beloved of governments who figure that the plebs can't tell the
difference between ten thousand wasted dollars and ten billion.

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Rob Bannister

Chuck Riggs - 29 Jan 2010 11:48 GMT
>>>>> Steve Hayes filted:
>>>>>>
[quoted text clipped - 40 lines]
>One of the problems is that the prefix "bi-" means "two" or "twice" or
>"double" in most words.

Too much knowledge can be a dangerous thing.
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Regards,

Chuck Riggs,
An American who lives near Dublin, Ireland and usually spells in BrE

Peter Moylan - 31 Jan 2010 00:52 GMT
> Ten to the sixth, ten to the ninth and ten to the twelve correspond to
> a million, a billion and a trillion, is the way I remember it. A
> difference of three in each case, which makes it simple for me.

In my schooldays we had an equally simple rule:
   million = a thousand thousand
   billion = a million million
   trillion = a billion billion
   quadrillion = a trillion trillion
and so on.

More importantly, the reasoning was clear. You don't need a new word for
a big number until you've used up your smaller numbers. Thus, for
example, the word "milliard" never made much headway in English because
our logic for the way numbers were constructed said that "a thousand
million" was the natural way to express this number, therefore there was
no need for an extra word.

There was, however, some confusion caused by people who felt for some
reason that, once a thousand was passed, you should go up in steps of
10^6. For those people, a trillion was a mere 10^18 rather than the
10^24 that I had learnt. This contradiction wasn't much noticed, though,
because public debt was not yet high enough to require such large
numbers. The people who did need huge numbers - astronomers, for example
- worked in numbers rather than words.

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sjdevnull@yahoo.com - 31 Jan 2010 01:56 GMT
> > Ten to the sixth, ten to the ninth and ten to the twelve correspond to
> > a million, a billion and a trillion, is the way I remember it. A
[quoted text clipped - 18 lines]
> 10^6. For those people, a trillion was a mere 10^18 rather than the
> 10^24 that I had learnt.

The system you were taught is odd; I've not heard of it before, but it
is consistent.

The system caused you confusion--with billion=million million (10^12),
trillion = million billion (10^18)--is the official old British "long
scale" system, used until 1974 when they changed to the short-scale
system (billion=10^9, trillion=10^12, etc).

The words themselves came via French, where they were originally
"bymillion" (bi-million, or 2 "million" words, or "million million"),
"trymillion" (tri-million, or 3 "million" words, or "million million
million"), etc, which coincides with their meanings under the long-
scale system.

Much of continental Europe still uses long-scale with trillion=10^18.
R H Draney - 31 Jan 2010 02:05 GMT
sjdevnull@yahoo.com filted:

>> In my schooldays we had an equally simple rule:
>> =A0 =A0 million =3D a thousand thousand
[quoted text clipped - 17 lines]
>The system you were taught is odd; I've not heard of it before, but it
>is consistent.

It also requires people spelling out numbers at intermediate powers of ten to
keep saying things like "a million billion trillion" of something....r

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Robert Bannister - 01 Feb 2010 00:41 GMT
> sjdevnull@yahoo.com filted:
>>> In my schooldays we had an equally simple rule:
[quoted text clipped - 20 lines]
> It also requires people spelling out numbers at intermediate powers of ten to
> keep saying things like "a million billion trillion" of something....r

A billion trillion (let alone a million billion trillion) was a much
larger number under the old system, but the new, or American system does
not do away with the necessity for such numbers. I suppose the only
reason we don't hear them more often is that the banks haven't lost
quite that much so far.

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Rob Bannister

R H Draney - 01 Feb 2010 03:32 GMT
Robert Bannister filted:

>> It also requires people spelling out numbers at intermediate powers of ten to
>> keep saying things like "a million billion trillion" of something....r
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>reason we don't hear them more often is that the banks haven't lost
>quite that much so far.

One of the best songs I ever had a hand in writing contained the line "wand'ring
through the distant skies for a thousand million years"...I've never been
*entirely* sure my lyricist didn't have Carl Sagan on his mind when he wrote
it....

As I think I've mentioned before, having to stack the names of the higher powers
of ten in piles like that sounds to me like a child on the playground saying
"Well, I hate *you* a million, billion, squajillion, kadzillion, *pafillion*
times more!"...r

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A pessimist sees the glass as half empty.
An optometrist asks whether you see the glass
more full like this?...or like this?

Frank ess - 27 Jan 2010 22:18 GMT
>>> Fred filted:
>>>>
[quoted text clipped - 24 lines]
>
> Billion

"over" to mean "more than"
Mike Barnes - 27 Jan 2010 22:33 GMT
Frank ess <frank@fshe2fs.com>:

>>>> Fred filted:
>>>>>
[quoted text clipped - 26 lines]
>
>"over" to mean "more than"

"up to" to mean "no more than"

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Mike Barnes
Cheshire, England

James Hogg - 28 Jan 2010 07:15 GMT
> Frank ess <frank@fshe2fs.com>:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 27 lines]
>
> "up to" to mean "no more than"

To complete the cycle one could add "under" to mean "less than", as used
by writers since Wyclif, in ghastly constructions such as "under a
thousand", "under a guinea", "under twenty years old".

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James

Robert Bannister - 27 Jan 2010 01:51 GMT
> Steep - (in connection with learning curves)

I don't think it's just the steepness - I'm hearing more and more
frequently "that's a learning curve" with no adjective at all. Since I
never understood the steep curve, these plain curves leave me just as
mystified.

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Rob Bannister

Steve Hayes - 27 Jan 2010 03:56 GMT
>> Steep - (in connection with learning curves)
>
>I don't think it's just the steepness - I'm hearing more and more
>frequently "that's a learning curve" with no adjective at all. Since I
>never understood the steep curve, these plain curves leave me just as
>mystified.

If you plot a graph with material to be learned on one axis, and time
available for learning it on the other, then the more you have to learn, and
the shorter the time, the steeper the curver. So a "steep learning curve"
means that you have to learn more in less time than a shallow learning curve.

But I suppose a learning curve on its own is a way to tip a rary.

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Donna Richoux - 28 Jan 2010 01:03 GMT
> >> Steep - (in connection with learning curves)
> >
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> the shorter the time, the steeper the curver. So a "steep learning curve"
> means that you have to learn more in less time than a shallow learning curve.

No no no (sob). I had hoped we had laid this one to rest. What you just
said is not true mathematically or historically or pedagogically or
psychologically or anything-ly.

(1) Try drawing the graph you just imagined and described to us, being
careful to label the axes, and plotting a few points. It doesn't behave
the way you said. Even if you fiddle around, it's not going to work.
Which of your two values, even, is the independent variable, and which
the dependent?

(2) Nobody ever made such graphs (except armchair handwavers trying to
explain their invented histories of "steep learning curve"). Do teachers
say, "Today I will estimate the amount of material I plan to assign and
how much time I will allow students to master each section, plot those
as points, and ponder the shape of the resulting curve"? They do not and
have not.

Psychologists and businesspeople *have* used "learning curve" as the
actual name of some graphs, but not what you describe. These historical
learning curves relate only slightly to the pop-idiom learning curve.
Neither variable was "learning" or "amount to be learned" or anything
like that.

Generally, they plot time or trial attempts against results achieved,
and they show that as time passes, the subjects achieve more. Until
eventually, the subjects quit improving and maintain a steady result.
The improvement makes the line *drop* steeply, and the reason assigned
to explain the drop is "learning."

An early psychologist timed how many seconds it took a cat to get out of
a puzzle box. At first, it took a fairly long time. With each attempt,
the cat got faster (i.e., the time got shorter), until the results
leveled out at a very short value. If you plot those trials, you get a
curve that descends steeply and then levels out. The common sense
interpretation is that the cat was doing a thing called "learning" when
the line was falling.

Businesses measured how long it took their employees to produce a
widget. At first, when the process was introduced it took a long time to
make a widget, but the workers got faster and better. The time per
widget decreased until eventually it stopped decreasing and leveled off.
While the labor force was learning, the graph descended, but eventually
they seemed to have learned all they were going to, and there were no
more savings to be had by any continued learning, to the regret of the
bosses. On the graphs, you could see when it was that learning took
place.

Learning is a *result* which the shape of the line demonstrates.
Mathematicians say, "Learning *falls out* of the graph." You can point
to a chart and say, "This section is when learning occurred." That's why
it was called a Learning Curve.

Repeat: the curve, once plotted, demonstrates that learning took place,
by its steeply dropping shape. Learning was neither the horizontal nor
the vertical axis.

As best as I can see, the people who borrowed "learning curve" into the
business and computer world didn't really understand what it meant.
(Particularly that it went *down*, not up.) But that's okay. Pop idiom
doesn't have to be understandable. We don't have to know *what* object
it was that used to be strung high, or highly. We don't have to know
what p's and q's were. We don't have to know about the original learning
curves. All we have to know is what meaning is conveyed by those phrases
today. And to refrain from passing on bogus etymologies.

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Donna Richoux

Steve Hayes - 28 Jan 2010 02:14 GMT
>Learning is a *result* which the shape of the line demonstrates.
>Mathematicians say, "Learning *falls out* of the graph." You can point
>to a chart and say, "This section is when learning occurred." That's why
>it was called a Learning Curve.

When I first came across it, capitalised like that, I thought it was something
named after someone called Learning.

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E-mail - see web page, or parse: shayes at dunelm full stop org full stop uk

Evan Kirshenbaum - 28 Jan 2010 18:18 GMT
>> >> Steep - (in connection with learning curves)
>> >
[quoted text clipped - 18 lines]
> Which of your two values, even, is the independent variable, and which
> the dependent?

It looks to me as though it work fine.  The x axis is time and the y
axis is effort, measured in terms of number of concepts that need to
be mastered.  If the time is bounded ("time available for learning")
and the notion is that you need to get up to a certain level in that
time, the more concepts that need to be mastered, the steeper the
curve will be.

There are other formulations that also result in a modern "steep
learning curve" result in a line with greater slope.  For example, if
the x axis is proficiency level and the y axis is a measure of time or
effort required to achieve that level.

That this is not the graph originally drawn by those who called their
graphs "learning curves" doesn't mean that they don't exist.

> (2) Nobody ever made such graphs (except armchair handwavers trying
> to explain their invented histories of "steep learning curve"). Do
> teachers say, "Today I will estimate the amount of material I plan
> to assign and how much time I will allow students to master each
> section, plot those as points, and ponder the shape of the resulting
> curve"? They do not and have not.

Did anybody ever project a graph with a steep line (or a steeply
rising set of vertical bars on a bar chart) and talk about the "steep
learning curve" it represented?  You betcha.

> Psychologists and businesspeople *have* used "learning curve" as the
> actual name of some graphs, but not what you describe. These
> historical learning curves relate only slightly to the pop-idiom
> learning curve.  Neither variable was "learning" or "amount to be
> learned" or anything like that.

Sorry, but "amount to be learned" is what's on the graphs I've seen in
business and the curves that have been implied by the context.  "With
product A, users can figure out how to use it by looking at the
interface, with product B, you have to read the manual, and with
product C, you pretty much have to take a one-week training class to
get to the same level of proficiency."

[snip original sense of the phrase]

> As best as I can see, the people who borrowed "learning curve" into
> the business and computer world didn't really understand what it
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
> meaning is conveyed by those phrases today. And to refrain from
> passing on bogus etymologies.

But in this case the new meaning *does* invoke an image of a graph, so
while this isn't the etymology of the term, it *is* the referent in
the mind of the speaker and the audience.  It's not merely that "steep
learning curve" means "hard to learn" for some inexplicable reason,
it's that a steeper learning curve means "more things to learn to
achieve a proficiency level", which has a perfecly reasonable
visualizable image.

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Donna Richoux - 29 Jan 2010 21:16 GMT
> >> If you plot a graph with material to be learned on one axis, and
> >> time available for learning it on the other, then the more you have
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
>
> It looks to me as though it work fine.

Evan, I think you know that I've been here before. I am going to have to
ask you be more specific in your example(s).

> The x axis is time

What sort of "time"? "Time available for learning 'it'" as Steve said?
So the axis goes, say, one hour, two hours, three hours...? Hours for
what? This isn't time passing, right, like 1:00, 2:00, 3:00, or Day One,
Day Two, but a quantity of time. But it's hard to see how that is an
independent variable. "If you have one hour to work, you are expected to
learn 20 pages of material. If you have two hours to work, you are
expected to learn 30 pages of material (or 40, or 10, or make up what
you like)." "If you have three hours..." That's a graphable relationship
but it feels totally divorced from any reality. I'll try again.

>and the y
> axis is effort, measured in terms of number of concepts that need to
> be mastered.  

I almost got sidetracked into discussing what "effort" means in terms of
learning, but at the moment the overall label you want to give the Y
axis is less important to me than the units. I'll set "effort" aside. So
you are saying some range of "number of concepts," such as 5 concepts,
10 concepts, 15 concepts, etc.

So now the teacher who is making the graphs is saying what, in terms of
plottable points? "I will tell the class to study concepts 1-5 during
Hour One. I will tell them to study concepts 6 and 7 during Hour Two. I
will tell them to study concepts 8-13 in Hour Three." Something like
that?

When I graph that, I have to make little bars, not point, and what I
notice that the steepest climbing part is the part where you cover the
*most* number of topics during the hour. If you can cover a lot in a
short time, that must be easy stuff. "Oh, 8-13, those sections are
nearly the same."

Oh, wait, now you're going to point that that "topics that need to be
mastered" aren't the "needed" because the teacher assigned them, they
are "needed" in some other sense of mastery of learning. What other
sense? ...  continued below.

>If the time is bounded ("time available for learning")
> and the notion is that you need to get up to a certain level in that
> time, the more concepts that need to be mastered, the steeper the
> curve will be.

So now I'm trying to come up with something that fits this. Suppose you
are given one hour to study. You work through each "concept" at your own
pace. At the end of studying each "concept" you have to demonstrate your
mastery of it, such as by a little quiz or other demonstration. (So far,
this scenario feels fairly believable). If you fail to show mastery you
have to stay at that level until you suceed. Is this the sort of thing
you had in mind?

Suppose in Hour One you show mastery of Concept 1. In Hour Two  you show
mastery of Concept 2. It starts getting a little easier, and Hour Three
you master Concepts 3 and 4. In Hour Four you zip through Concepts 5
through 9.

So I plot those points, and I get the same sort of result as my
teacher-assignment version. Even more so. The shape climbs more steeply
when the learning gets easy and more material is covered.

> There are other formulations that also result in a modern "steep
> learning curve" result in a line with greater slope.  For example, if
> the x axis is proficiency level and the y axis is a measure of time or
> effort required to achieve that level.

You need to put the independent variable on the horizontal axis.
Achieving proficiency levels isn't what makes time pass.

> That this is not the graph originally drawn by those who called their
> graphs "learning curves" doesn't mean that they don't exist.

Nothing in the world proves a thing doesn't exist.

The ones I talked about existed, and in the past I've given URLs.

If you care to trot out any proof that anybody on the planet has ever
made, used, and published "Effort" graphs of limited hours versus
mastery achieved, or whatever you want to call this false -- yes, what I
call false -- model, please do so. Maybe that's what all my teachers
were doing in those hours of lesson planning -- but I don't think so.

> > (2) Nobody ever made such graphs (except armchair handwavers trying
> > to explain their invented histories of "steep learning curve"). Do
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> rising set of vertical bars on a bar chart) and talk about the "steep
> learning curve" it represented?  You betcha.

Sure. I suppose I need to repeat the basic point here. I don't care what
people use the phrase to mean. They are free to say what they like.
Words acquire new meanings, phrases acquire new meanings, and a fair
number of these new meanings arise out of mistakes and confusions. What
I do care are people who pass along invented and false (and
mathematically impossible) stories as etymology.

We use "(steep) learning curve" because we have heard other people use
the phrase. That's really all it comes down to. Many of us know enough
mathematics to know about curves that are steep when things change
rapidly, and we make up a little story in our heads about difficulty and
mastery and so on. But those are just our thoughts. When people ask
about the origin of the phrase and we trot out our thoughts, we're no
better than people who explain brass monkeys because they've read
historical sea novels. Or people who defend their eggcorns as being
logical and better than the original.

> > Psychologists and businesspeople *have* used "learning curve" as the
> > actual name of some graphs, but not what you describe. These
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> product C, you pretty much have to take a one-week training class to
> get to the same level of proficiency."

You are talking about the current use of the phrase. I was talking about
its origins.

> [snip original sense of the phrase]
>
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
> But in this case the new meaning *does* invoke an image of a graph, so
> while this isn't the etymology of the term,

Well, a real graph was, although it was distorted when borrowed, as best
I can explain it.

>it *is* the referent in
> the mind of the speaker and the audience.  It's not merely that "steep
> learning curve" means "hard to learn" for some inexplicable reason,
> it's that a steeper learning curve means "more things to learn to
> achieve a proficiency level", which has a perfecly reasonable
> visualizable image.

Perfectly reasonable and visualizable doesn't make it true. I totally
agree with you about this part. Modern people are educated enough to
know something about graphs and curves and steepness. But internal
knowledge isn't enough to tell you historical origins.

Signature

Best -- Donna Richoux

Evan Kirshenbaum - 29 Jan 2010 22:55 GMT
>> >> If you plot a graph with material to be learned on one axis, and
>> >> time available for learning it on the other, then the more you
[quoted text clipped - 21 lines]
> What sort of "time"? "Time available for learning 'it'" as Steve
> said?

No, time spent learning, out of the available time.

> So the axis goes, say, one hour, two hours, three hours...?  Hours
> for what? This isn't time passing, right, like 1:00, 2:00, 3:00, or
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
> graphable relationship but it feels totally divorced from any
> reality. I'll try again.

Try it this way.  You have two days to learn the material.  There is
100 pages of material to learn.  So after the first day, you will have
to have learned 50 pages, and after the second, you will have to have
learned 100.  The slope, the required rate of learning, the steepness
of the curve, is 50 pages/day.  For some other method, you only have
to learn thirty pages, so the required learning rate is only 15 pages/
day.  Not as steep.  It doesn't really matter whether you have two
days or an hour or five years, of course.  Each method has a different
amount of material that has to be learned in each fraction of the time
available, and it will always be (proportionately) more for the first
method than the second.

>>and the y axis is effort, measured in terms of number of concepts
>>that need to be mastered.
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> "effort" aside. So you are saying some range of "number of
> concepts," such as 5 concepts, 10 concepts, 15 concepts, etc.

Right.  Or it could be the amount of time it takes to learn the
concepts.  If there's twenty hours of learning to do, and I have a
week, I have to spend four hours a day on it.  If there's only an hour
of learning to do, I only have to spend 12 minutes a day, on average.

> So now the teacher who is making the graphs is saying what, in terms
> of plottable points? "I will tell the class to study concepts 1-5
> during Hour One. I will tell them to study concepts 6 and 7 during
> Hour Two. I will tell them to study concepts 8-13 in Hour Three."
> Something like that?

Not quite.  Hopefully it's clearer now.

> When I graph that, I have to make little bars, not point, and what I
> notice that the steepest climbing part is the part where you cover the
> *most* number of topics during the hour. If you can cover a lot in a
> short time, that must be easy stuff. "Oh, 8-13, those sections are
> nearly the same."

It's not the steepest part of a curve, it's the steepness of one curve
relative to another.

> Oh, wait, now you're going to point that that "topics that need to be
> mastered" aren't the "needed" because the teacher assigned them, they
> are "needed" in some other sense of mastery of learning. What other
> sense? ...  continued below.

In the sense of "if you don't master them, you haven't reached the
milestone".

>>If the time is bounded ("time available for learning") and the
>>notion is that you need to get up to a certain level in that time,
[quoted text clipped - 17 lines]
> teacher-assignment version. Even more so. The shape climbs more
> steeply when the learning gets easy and more material is covered.

Great.  Now plot another curve.  You still have four hours, but now
you have 25 concepts to master.  If you succeed, which curve is going
to be steeper, both on average and (most likely) at its steepest
point?

>> There are other formulations that also result in a modern "steep
>> learning curve" result in a line with greater slope.  For example,
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> You need to put the independent variable on the horizontal axis.
> Achieving proficiency levels isn't what makes time pass.

There's absolutely no reason why the independent variable has to be
wall-clock time.

>> That this is not the graph originally drawn by those who called
>> their graphs "learning curves" doesn't mean that they don't exist.
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> my teachers were doing in those hours of lesson planning -- but I
> don't think so.

Why would teachers be concerned with the amount of time and effort it
takes users to become familiar with a product?

>> > (2) Nobody ever made such graphs (except armchair handwavers
>> > trying to explain their invented histories of "steep learning
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
> I do care are people who pass along invented and false (and
> mathematically impossible) stories as etymology.

Have I *ever* said that the way it is used today is the etymology of
the phrase?  All I've said is that in my 20 years working for a large
corporation that makes products and makes product purchasing
decisions, I have personally, with my own eyes, seen, in
presentations, people put up graphs that match this interpretation of
"learning curve" where the speaker talked about one represented
product as having a steeper learning curve than another based on the
steeper slope of the lines (either drawn or implicit in relative bar
height) between different alternatives.  I can't, of course, give you
URLs.

> We use "(steep) learning curve" because we have heard other people
> use the phrase. That's really all it comes down to. Many of us know
> enough mathematics to know about curves that are steep when things
> change rapidly, and we make up a little story in our heads about
> difficulty and mastery and so on.

And then, having done so and convinced ourselves that it's a useful
concept, we create figures that reflect them.

> But those are just our thoughts. When people ask about the origin of
> the phrase and we trot out our thoughts, we're no better than people
> who explain brass monkeys because they've read historical sea
> novels. Or people who defend their eggcorns as being logical and
> better than the original.

Again, who here is saying "better than the original"?

>> > Psychologists and businesspeople *have* used "learning curve" as
>> > the actual name of some graphs, but not what you describe. These
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
> You are talking about the current use of the phrase. I was talking
> about its origins.

If so, you have not made that clear in this particular discussion.
Steve described a plot for which the steepness of the line means that
something is harder to learn, and you said that it "is not true
mathematically or .. anything-ly".  I said explicitly that such a
graph "is not the graph originally drawn by those who called their
graphs 'learning curves'", and yet you still took exception to my
claim that such graphs exist.  You asked if there was "any proof that
anybody on the planet has ever made, used, and published" such
graphs.  It seems we're out of the realm of "origins".

>> [snip original sense of the phrase]
>>
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
> Well, a real graph was, although it was distorted when borrowed, as
> best I can explain it.

The new meaning invokes an image of the graph.  The graph whose image
it invokes was not the graph that is the source of the term.

>>it *is* the referent in the mind of the speaker and the audience.
>>It's not merely that "steep learning curve" means "hard to learn"
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> know something about graphs and curves and steepness. But internal
> knowledge isn't enough to tell you historical origins.

You're the only one in this thread arguing about historical origins.

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Donna Richoux - 01 Feb 2010 16:35 GMT
[snip much on learning curves]

Evan, I'm getting no joy out of wrangling with you in these long posts.
I wrote a bunch of responses to your message which I don't think are
likely to convince you of anything. So for now I'm just going to post
one short comment, to this:

>All I've said is that in my 20 years working for a large
> corporation that makes products and makes product purchasing
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
> height) between different alternatives.  I can't, of course, give you
> URLs.

This is the sort of thing I'd like to see for myself, to see what set of
data was actually graphed, by what measurements, giving what results.
Pity that it's not a thing you have access to. If you (or anyone else
here) happen across such a thing again, please remember that I'd be
interested in seeing it.

Signature

Hoping for the best -- Donna Richoux

Peter Moylan - 31 Jan 2010 01:19 GMT
> Sorry, but "amount to be learned" is what's on the graphs I've seen in
> business and the curves that have been implied by the context.  "With
> product A, users can figure out how to use it by looking at the
> interface, with product B, you have to read the manual, and with
> product C, you pretty much have to take a one-week training class to
> get to the same level of proficiency."

That's where the people who peddle this hogwash always get it back to
front, in my opinion. In your example, learning happens very rapidly
with product A - the curve rapidly jumps to the place where a lot has
been learnt - while the one-week requirement for C means that C has a
very shallow learning curve. In other words, if those curves made any
sense then "steep learning curve" would mean "easy to learn".

In practice it means the opposite. I think that's because the curves
don't make any sense. The marketing people do a lot of hand-waving, and
produce lots of pretty pictures that include graphs with unlabelled
axes, and it's all to hide the fact that what they're saying has very
little real content.

I'd better make it clear here that I'm talking about current practice,
not etymology. I agree with Donna that the original learning curves were
something entirely different. I believe that all this confusion has come
about because somebody borrowed the phrase "learning curve" without
understanding what it meant.

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Peter Moylan, Newcastle, NSW, Australia.      http://www.pmoylan.org
For an e-mail address, see my web page.

Skitt - 31 Jan 2010 01:33 GMT
>> Sorry, but "amount to be learned" is what's on the graphs I've seen
>> in business and the curves that have been implied by the context.
[quoted text clipped - 21 lines]
> has come about because somebody borrowed the phrase "learning curve"
> without understanding what it meant.

Seems that way.  The smartest thing to say about a new process is that
"there is a learning curve to consider" and let it go at that.
Signature

Skitt (AmE)

Chuck Riggs - 31 Jan 2010 12:03 GMT
>>> Sorry, but "amount to be learned" is what's on the graphs I've seen
>>> in business and the curves that have been implied by the context.
[quoted text clipped - 24 lines]
>Seems that way.  The smartest thing to say about a new process is that
>"there is a learning curve to consider" and let it go at that.

A steep learning curve means there is a lot to learn in a short period
of time. It is a popular phrase in the military.
Signature


Regards,

Chuck Riggs,
An American who lives near Dublin, Ireland and usually spells in BrE

Skitt - 31 Jan 2010 18:13 GMT
>>>> Sorry, but "amount to be learned" is what's on the graphs I've seen
>>>> in business and the curves that have been implied by the context.
[quoted text clipped - 28 lines]
> A steep learning curve means there is a lot to learn in a short period
> of time. It is a popular phrase in the military.

It wasn't in my day (1956-1959).  I heard the phrase at Lockheed, probably
in the 1980s or 1990s.  Most likely the latter.
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Skitt (AmE)

Chuck Riggs - 01 Feb 2010 11:59 GMT
>>>>> Sorry, but "amount to be learned" is what's on the graphs I've seen
>>>>> in business and the curves that have been implied by the context.
[quoted text clipped - 31 lines]
>It wasn't in my day (1956-1959).  I heard the phrase at Lockheed, probably
>in the 1980s or 1990s.  Most likely the latter.

The term is older than you think it is, IINM. I heard it many times in
the 1970s, when I worked for the Navy, and I believe I heard it back
in the late 1960s in the private firms I worked for.
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Regards,

Chuck Riggs,
An American who lives near Dublin, Ireland and usually spells in BrE

Peter Moylan - 01 Feb 2010 12:56 GMT
>>>>>> Sorry, but "amount to be learned" is what's on the graphs I've seen
>>>>>> in business and the curves that have been implied by the context.
[quoted text clipped - 31 lines]
> the 1970s, when I worked for the Navy, and I believe I heard it back
> in the late 1960s in the private firms I worked for.

Serious question: did you hear it from engineers, or from management types?

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Peter Moylan, Newcastle, NSW, Australia.      http://www.pmoylan.org
For an e-mail address, see my web page.

Chuck Riggs - 02 Feb 2010 12:16 GMT
<snip>

>> [Learning curve]is older than you think it is, IINM. I heard it many times in
>> the 1970s, when I worked for the Navy, and I believe I heard it back
>> in the late 1960s in the private firms I worked for.
>
>Serious question: did you hear it from engineers, or from management types?

Interesting question. As I recall, those few times I heard it from an
engineer was when a management type said it first. It is a management
term, IMO.
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Regards,

Chuck Riggs,
An American who lives near Dublin, Ireland and usually spells in BrE

Robert Bannister - 01 Feb 2010 00:51 GMT
>> Sorry, but "amount to be learned" is what's on the graphs I've seen in
>> business and the curves that have been implied by the context.  "With
[quoted text clipped - 21 lines]
> about because somebody borrowed the phrase "learning curve" without
> understanding what it meant.

I read someone in another newsgroup this morning who was talking about
"learning curves of different sizes". I remembered to keep quiet this time.

Signature

Rob Bannister

Steve Hayes - 30 Jan 2010 04:10 GMT
>> >> Steep - (in connection with learning curves)
>> >
[quoted text clipped - 15 lines]
>curves. All we have to know is what meaning is conveyed by those phrases
>today. And to refrain from passing on bogus etymologies.

I wasn't apssing on an etymology, i was just explaining what it meant to me.

I don't use the term myself, but it's what i picture when other people use it.

And what I think of is computer programs and how long it takes me to learn
enough about using them to get useful results.

But yes, it would probably be the other way round.

You get a curve that starts off steeply, and then levels out to a plateau,
sort of. In other words, when you begin learning it you can quickly learn to
do 90% of the stuff you need to use the program for, and then 90% of the
effort to learn the remaining 10%. So that produces a steep curve that levels
off.

Or you can think of it another way, where the line starts off shallow, showing
the amount of effort you have to put in (vertical axis) and amount that has to
be learned (horizontal), and it gets steeper and steeper.

So the metaphor doesn't make much sense to me, and I don't use it, but that's
what I think people mean by it when they use it.

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Steve Hayes from Tshwane, South Africa
Web:  http://hayesfam.bravehost.com/stevesig.htm
Blog: http://methodius.blogspot.com
E-mail - see web page, or parse: shayes at dunelm full stop org full stop uk

Glenn Knickerbocker - 01 Feb 2010 20:51 GMT
> An early psychologist timed how many seconds it took a cat to get out of
> a puzzle box. At first, it took a fairly long time. With each attempt,
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> interpretation is that the cat was doing a thing called "learning" when
> the line was falling.

The Wikipedia articles on Ebbinghaus and the Learning Curve refer to two
different relations, sadly vaguely, and without a graph of either one
labeled "Learning Curve":  a "steep" (presumably exponential) increase
in learning time with the amount of random information to learn, and an
exponential decrease in learning time with experience.

The former would be the "steep learning curve" that describes the
difficulty of learning complex tasks.  Even that doesn't really map all
that well to the popular idiom, though, since it doesn't give a sense of
reaching a point where you're done with the effort of learning and it
gets easy.

The latter is what you describe.  What my math teacher called a learning
curve back in high school was its inverse:  a sigmoid curve relating the
speed of learning or rate of success to experience.  The steep section
of the sigmoid describes the *ease* of learning something to
near-perfection after practice.  The long, flat sections before and
after the steep part are the hard parts:  getting started, and reaching
perfection.

¬R
Robert Bannister - 28 Jan 2010 02:09 GMT
>>> Steep - (in connection with learning curves)
>> I don't think it's just the steepness - I'm hearing more and more
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
>
> But I suppose a learning curve on its own is a way to tip a rary.

Yes, but there never seems to be agreement on whether they are talking
about a difficult task of learning, clever learners or speed teaching -
in fact, the people who use it don't seem to be sure what they mean at all.

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Rob Bannister

Mike Barnes - 28 Jan 2010 12:42 GMT
Robert Bannister <robban1@bigpond.com>:

>>>> Steep - (in connection with learning curves)
>>> I don't think it's just the steepness - I'm hearing more and more
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
>in fact, the people who use it don't seem to be sure what they mean at
>all.

In my experience "steep learning curve" means that early efforts produce
little reward. You need to learn a great deal before you have anything
to show for it. I don't think I've heard it used in any other sense.
That's not to say that people don't use it otherwise, of course, just
that I haven't heard them.

Signature

Mike Barnes
Cheshire, England

Robert Bannister - 29 Jan 2010 01:38 GMT
> Robert Bannister <robban1@bigpond.com>:
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 20 lines]
> That's not to say that people don't use it otherwise, of course, just
> that I haven't heard them.

Sorry, but I've heard it used to mean "quick learning". I used to listen
when people said it, but I've given up now.

Signature

Rob Bannister

Mike Barnes - 29 Jan 2010 07:37 GMT
Robert Bannister <robban1@bigpond.com>:
>>In my experience "steep learning curve" means that early efforts
>>produce  little reward. You need to learn a great deal before you have
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
>Sorry, but I've heard it used to mean "quick learning".

That must literally drive you crazy.

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Mike Barnes
Cheshire, England

Chuck Riggs - 29 Jan 2010 11:54 GMT
>Robert Bannister <robban1@bigpond.com>:
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 21 lines]
>That's not to say that people don't use it otherwise, of course, just
>that I haven't heard them.

You don't say?
ObAUE: Few people don't know what "I've heard it.." means.
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Regards,

Chuck Riggs,
An American who lives near Dublin, Ireland and usually spells in BrE

Chuck Riggs - 27 Jan 2010 15:59 GMT
>Fred filted:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 19 lines]
>
>Steep - (in connection with learning curves)

Iconic.
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Chuck Riggs,
An American who lives near Dublin, Ireland and usually spells in BrE

Jerry Friedman - 28 Jan 2010 06:34 GMT
> >Fred filted:
>
[quoted text clipped - 21 lines]
>
> Iconic.

That and "legendary".

--
Jerry Friedman
Peter Moylan - 28 Jan 2010 07:45 GMT
> On Jan 26, 1:12 pm, "djarvi...@gmail.com" <djarvi...@gmail.com> wrote:
>> Twice a week, or once every two weeks? Even in context, you generally
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
>
> Literally -

"Refute" was a perfectly respectable word until the newsreaders got hold
of it. "Literally", I agree, has literally gone out of control.

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Steve Hayes - 28 Jan 2010 08:25 GMT
>> Literally -
>>
>"Refute" was a perfectly respectable word until the newsreaders got hold
>of it. "Literally", I agree, has literally gone out of control.

James Joyce (Ulysses):

Wagnerian music, though confessedly grand in its way, was a bit too heavy for
Bloom and hard to follow at the first go-off but the music of Mercadante's
Huguenots, Meyerbeer's Seven last words on the Cross, and Mozart's Twelfth
Mass, he simply revelled in, the Gloria in that being to his mind the acme of
first class music as such, literally knocking everything else into a cocked
hat.

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Steve Hayes from Tshwane, South Africa
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Blog: http://methodius.blogspot.com
E-mail - see web page, or parse: shayes at dunelm full stop org full stop uk

Chuck Riggs - 28 Jan 2010 12:31 GMT
>>> Literally -
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>first class music as such, literally knocking everything else into a cocked
>hat.

I wasn't aware that Mozart wrote that many masses. My favourite is his
Requiem Mass.
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Regards,

Chuck Riggs,
An American who lives near Dublin, Ireland and usually spells in BrE

Chuck Riggs - 28 Jan 2010 12:32 GMT
>>> Literally -
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>first class music as such, literally knocking everything else into a cocked
>hat.

I wasn't aware that Mozart wrote that many masses. My favourite is his
Requiem Mass.

Which must be his twelfth, if he wrote twelve.
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Regards,

Chuck Riggs,
An American who lives near Dublin, Ireland and usually spells in BrE

Evan Kirshenbaum - 28 Jan 2010 18:31 GMT
> "Refute" was a perfectly respectable word until the newsreaders got
> hold of it.

Back in the nineteenth century?  The OED has an interesting note:

   5. trans. To reject (an allegation, assertion, report, etc.) as
   without foundation; to repudiate.

   Criticized as erroneous in usage guides in the 20th cent. In many
   instances it is unclear whether there is an implication of
   argument accompanying the assertion that something is baseless
   (making the use sense 2).

In other words, perhaps it's like some cases of purported singular
"y'all": the speaker, in writing it, believes that there is is
evidence that could be presented or, perhaps, that the simple act of
denial should be considered evidence and thus constitutes a
refutation.  (Note that there's nothing in the earliest modern
sense[1] that requires that the rebuttal be considered persuasive by
others.)

[1] The OED's earliest attested sense, marked "obsolete" is "to refuse
   or reject (a thing or person).

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Nasti J - 26 Jan 2010 22:13 GMT
On Jan 26, 11:12 am, "djarvi...@gmail.com" <djarvi...@gmail.com>
wrote:

> Any other candidates for 'worst English word'?

cleave

njg
Steve Hayes - 26 Jan 2010 23:31 GMT
>On Jan 26, 11:12 am, "djarvi...@gmail.com" <djarvi...@gmail.com>
>wrote:
>
>> Any other candidates for 'worst English word'?
>
>cleave

Oversight.

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Steve Hayes from Tshwane, South Africa
Web:  http://hayesfam.bravehost.com/stevesig.htm
Blog: http://methodius.blogspot.com
E-mail - see web page, or parse: shayes at dunelm full stop org full stop uk

Steve Hayes - 26 Jan 2010 23:29 GMT
>Twice a week, or once every two weeks?  Even in context, you generally
>can't decipher what is meant.  By the time you explain what you meant,
>you've wasted more verbiage than you could have possibly saved by
>using 'biweekly'.

If you confine it to meaning "twice a week" there's always "fortnightly" for
once every two weeks.

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Steve Hayes from Tshwane, South Africa
Web:  http://hayesfam.bravehost.com/stevesig.htm
Blog: http://methodius.blogspot.com
E-mail - see web page, or parse: shayes at dunelm full stop org full stop uk

A.Clews@DENTURESsussex.ac.uk - 27 Jan 2010 16:57 GMT
> Twice a week, or once every two weeks?  Even in context, you generally
> can't decipher what is meant.  By the time you explain what you meant,
> you've wasted more verbiage than you could have possibly saved by
> using 'biweekly'.

> Is there a process by which you can perma-ban words?

> Any other candidates for 'worst English word'?

Tax.

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                                Andy Clews
                           University of Sussex
                *** Remove DENTURES if replying by email ***

HVS - 27 Jan 2010 16:59 GMT
On 27 Jan 2010,  wrote

> Thus spake djarvinen@gmail.com (djarvinen@gmail.com) unto the
> assembled multitudes:
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
>
> Tax.

Coupled with "refund", though, it becomes one of the best.

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Cheers, Harvey
CanEng and BrEng, indiscriminately mixed

Fred - 27 Jan 2010 20:07 GMT
> On 27 Jan 2010,  wrote
>
[quoted text clipped - 12 lines]
>
> Coupled with "refund", though, it becomes one of the best.

Well give me $10,000.  Imagine how happy you'll be when I refund it in a
year's time.
Skitt - 27 Jan 2010 21:23 GMT
>> On 27 Jan 2010,  wrote

>>>> Any other candidates for 'worst English word'?
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> Well give me $10,000.  Imagine how happy you'll be when I refund it
> in a year's time.

I always owe a little bit, most of the rest of the tax having been withheld
near year's end when I withdraw from my IRA.
Signature

Skitt (AmE)

James Silverton - 27 Jan 2010 21:46 GMT
Fred  wrote  on Thu, 28 Jan 2010 09:07:10 +1300:

>> On 27 Jan 2010,  wrote
>>
[quoted text clipped - 12 lines]
>>
>> Coupled with "refund", though, it becomes one of the best.

That reminds me of the ads asking me to buy tax programs and telling me
that I will get my "refund" extremely rapidly. It has been many years
since I got a refund and in fact I regard that as an error on my part
giving Uncle money to which he is not entitled.

Signature

James Silverton
Potomac, Maryland

Email, with obvious alterations: not.jim.silverton.at.verizon.not

Mike Barnes - 27 Jan 2010 22:36 GMT
James Silverton <not.jim.silverton@verizon.net>:
>That reminds me of the ads asking me to buy tax programs and telling me
>that I will get my "refund" extremely rapidly. It has been many years
>since I got a refund and in fact I regard that as an error on my part
>giving Uncle money to which he is not entitled.

I get a tax refund every year. But the tax office pesters me about
savings accounts where I have elected to receive gross interest (no tax
deducted). They want me to revert to the more usual tax-deducted
interest payments, so that they'd have to pay me an even bigger refund
every year.

Signature

Mike Barnes
Cheshire, England

Roland Hutchinson - 27 Jan 2010 22:46 GMT
> On 27 Jan 2010,  wrote
>
[quoted text clipped - 12 lines]
>
> Coupled with "refund", though, it becomes one of the best.

Until rephrased as "interest-free loan to the government".

Signature

Roland Hutchinson       

He calls himself "the Garden State's leading violist da gamba,"
... comparable to being ruler of an exceptionally small duchy.
--Newark (NJ) Star Ledger  ( http://tinyurl.com/RolandIsNJ )

 
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