Calquing Misnomers
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Dan McGrath - 12 Feb 2010 18:30 GMT In my opinion, it seems silly to calque a word into another language when the calquer knows perfectly well that the original term was a misnomer. Does anyone else agree? I mean, like -- doesn't it just make the misnomer worse?
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Vinny Burgoo - 12 Feb 2010 19:47 GMT > In my opinion, it seems silly to calque a word into another language > when the calquer knows perfectly well that the original term was a > misnomer. Does anyone else agree? I mean, like -- doesn't it just > make the misnomer worse? Le modèle anglo-saxon?
-- VB
Vinny Burgoo - 12 Feb 2010 20:19 GMT > > In my opinion, it seems silly to calque a word into another language > > when the calquer knows perfectly well that the original term was a [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > -- > VB I forgot the Fascinating Fact at the Foot of the Page (and I didn't spot sci.lang): 'A person must not cause or permit any animal (whether or not attached to a parachute) to be dropped from a small unmanned aircraft so as to endanger persons or property.' - the UK's Air Navigation Order 2009.
Django Cat - 13 Feb 2010 10:59 GMT > > > In my opinion, it seems silly to calque a word into another > > > language when the calquer knows perfectly well that the original [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > to a parachute) to be dropped from a small unmanned aircraft so as to > endanger persons or property.' - the UK's Air Navigation Order 2009. Heard when I worked at a Disabled Adults Day Centre:
"A blind friend of mine went skydiving last week". "Wow! That's must have been a tough one!" "Not really. He said the only difficult bit was getting the Guide Dog out the plane door..."
DC
--
musika - 13 Feb 2010 11:52 GMT >>>> In my opinion, it seems silly to calque a word into another >>>> language when the calquer knows perfectly well that the original [quoted text clipped - 19 lines] > "Not really. He said the only difficult bit was getting the Guide Dog > out the plane door..." "And how does he know when he is about to land?" "The lead goes slack"
 Signature Ray UK
Django Cat - 13 Feb 2010 12:12 GMT > > > > > In my opinion, it seems silly to calque a word into another > > > > > language when the calquer knows perfectly well that the [quoted text clipped - 22 lines] > "And how does he know when he is about to land?" > "The lead goes slack" Tiddy-boom!
--
R H Draney - 13 Feb 2010 17:54 GMT Django Cat filted:
>> I forgot the Fascinating Fact at the Foot of the Page (and I didn't >> spot sci.lang): [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] >"Not really. He said the only difficult bit was getting the Guide Dog >out the plane door..." Apparently there's no law covering this in Canada:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7w4t9iArc7U
....r
 Signature A pessimist sees the glass as half empty. An optometrist asks whether you see the glass more full like this?...or like this?
Evan Kirshenbaum - 13 Feb 2010 18:54 GMT > Django Cat filted: >> [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > > http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7w4t9iArc7U Somehow I doubt that they were jumping from "a small *unmanned* aircraft". We're talking radio-controlled planes here. What surprises me is the "so as to endanger persons or property. Presumably this particular law doesn't care if you drop your gerbil from a hundred feet over an empty parking lot.
 Signature Evan Kirshenbaum +------------------------------------ HP Laboratories |_Bauplan_ is just the German word 1501 Page Mill Road, 1U, MS 1141 |for blueprint. Typically, one Palo Alto, CA 94304 |switches languages to indicate |profundity. kirshenbaum@hpl.hp.com | Richard Dawkins (650)857-7572
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R H Draney - 13 Feb 2010 20:08 GMT Evan Kirshenbaum filted:
>> Apparently there's no law covering this in Canada: >> [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] >Presumably this particular law doesn't care if you drop your gerbil >from a hundred feet over an empty parking lot. As God is my witness, I thought gerbils could fly....r
 Signature A pessimist sees the glass as half empty. An optometrist asks whether you see the glass more full like this?...or like this?
Adam Funk - 13 Feb 2010 20:39 GMT > Evan Kirshenbaum filted:
>>Somehow I doubt that they were jumping from "a small *unmanned* >>aircraft". We're talking radio-controlled planes here. What [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > As God is my witness, I thought gerbils could fly....r I can't recall any gerbil-themed holidays.
The Groundhog Day episode, on the other hand ... oh, the humanity!
 Signature And remember, while you're out there risking your life and limb through shot and shell, we'll be in be in here thinking what a sucker you are. [Rufus T. Firefly]
R H Draney - 14 Feb 2010 00:48 GMT Adam Funk filted:
>> Evan Kirshenbaum filted: > [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > >The Groundhog Day episode, on the other hand ... oh, the humanity! What on earth does a manatee have to do with it?...r
 Signature A pessimist sees the glass as half empty. An optometrist asks whether you see the glass more full like this?...or like this?
the Omrud - 14 Feb 2010 09:58 GMT > Adam Funk filted: >> [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > > What on earth does a manatee have to do with it?...r Hugh Manatee?
 Signature David
Adam Funk - 13 Feb 2010 20:37 GMT > Apparently there's no law covering this in Canada: > > http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7w4t9iArc7U Weird. With space travel, they sent Laika *first* to verify it was safe.
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R H Draney - 14 Feb 2010 00:51 GMT Adam Funk filted:
>> Apparently there's no law covering this in Canada: >> >> http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7w4t9iArc7U > >Weird. With space travel, they sent Laika *first* to verify it was >safe. They've tried this with a cat, but it nearly clawed its owner to shreds on the way down in an attempt to turn over so it could land on its feet....r
 Signature A pessimist sees the glass as half empty. An optometrist asks whether you see the glass more full like this?...or like this?
Nathan Sanders - 12 Feb 2010 20:11 GMT > In my opinion, it seems silly to calque a word into another language > when the calquer knows perfectly well that the original term was a > misnomer. Does anyone else agree? I mean, like -- doesn't it just > make the misnomer worse? Given that languages do in fact calque misnomers with complete seriousness, your opinion doesn't line up the known facts.
Of course, there's nothing inherently unusual about someone having their own opinion that deviates from reality (e.g., something like half of the US population believes that humans were created as-is, without having undergone evolution), but I do hope you recognize that your opinion is not an accurate description of how language has operated in the past, and that your opinion will have no impact on how language operates in the future.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Jerry Friedman - 12 Feb 2010 20:54 GMT > In article <pv6bn5dqv3o2dfnq8n6t3oqtv0g0e46...@4ax.com>, > [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > operated in the past, and that your opinion will have no impact on how > language operates in the future. I understood Dan to be saying that he thinks such calques are silly, which is hardly like believing something false or implausible, or even like describing how language has operated in the past.
I do agree that his dislike for such expressions, and mine, will have practically no effect on how language operates.
-- Jerry Friedman
Nathan Sanders - 12 Feb 2010 21:51 GMT In article <67d766a6-716d-4386-a10a-1a572974cf8c@s25g2000prd.googlegroups.com>,
> > In article <pv6bn5dqv3o2dfnq8n6t3oqtv0g0e46...@4ax.com>, > > [quoted text clipped - 17 lines] > which is hardly like believing something false or implausible, or even > like describing how language has operated in the past. He was, at minimum, implicitly saying that the people who make such calques are being *intentionally* silly. That's the implication I'm arguing against.
If he didn't intend that implication, then I don't understand why he brought up the calquer's knowledge in the first place.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Jerry Friedman - 13 Feb 2010 15:19 GMT > In article > <67d766a6-716d-4386-a10a-1a572974c...@s25g2000prd.googlegroups.com>, [quoted text clipped - 27 lines] > If he didn't intend that implication, then I don't understand why he > brought up the calquer's knowledge in the first place. I don't get what you're saying at all. If I know something relevant to what I'm doing but fail to consider it, I may well say "Silly me" when I realize it, but I wasn't being intentionally silly.
One might say there's no reason for calquers to consider their knowledge of the referent, but that strikes me as a different argument from the one you're making.
-- Jerry Friedman
Nathan Sanders - 13 Feb 2010 16:11 GMT In article <92c3889a-8da8-4e51-9326-84f626027349@n3g2000vbl.googlegroups.com>,
> > In article > > <67d766a6-716d-4386-a10a-1a572974c...@s25g2000prd.googlegroups.com>, [quoted text clipped - 31 lines] > to what I'm doing but fail to consider it, I may well say "Silly me" > when I realize it, but I wasn't being intentionally silly. If you didn't realize it at the time you took the action, then you didn't "know perfectly well".
Perhaps you and I have different definitions of "perfectly"?
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Jerry Friedman - 13 Feb 2010 16:52 GMT > In article > <92c3889a-8da8-4e51-9326-84f626027...@n3g2000vbl.googlegroups.com>, [quoted text clipped - 39 lines] > > Perhaps you and I have different definitions of "perfectly"? Mine doesn't mean "in a way that's available for active use at all times".
Anyway, I now understand what you're saying. It's true that people use "know perfectly well" to argue that someone did something deliberately (or is lying), but they also use it to mean that someone was stupid or forgetful.
"You knew perfectly well, if your fingers were down far enough to come in contact with the roller, they would get hurt?"
http://books.google.com/books?id=zTcLAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA1044#v=onepage&q=&f=false
The defense lawyer here was not suggesting that the unfortunate boy had deliberately injured his own fingers, only that he had the knowledge he needed to operate the sausage grinder safely, even if, as the boy admitted, he never gave it a thought.
I saw a number of uses where "knew perfectly well" meant other things before it I saw this one, but I don't think I'm the only person who understands it as compatible with "but wasn't thinking about". So as Dan said "silly" rather than "malicious" or something, I don't think there's a legitimate inference that he meant "deliberately silly".
-- Jerry Friedman
Nathan Sanders - 13 Feb 2010 18:27 GMT In article <4bdd9499-c7cd-4ce9-979e-503006354749@d37g2000yqa.googlegroups.com>,
> > Perhaps you and I have different definitions of "perfectly"? > > Mine doesn't mean "in a way that's available for active use at all > times". That sounds like imperfect knowledge, then!
If I know "perfectly well" that action X causes consequence Y, and I intentionally perform action X, then I have intentionally caused consequence Y, too.
I know "perfectly well" that cutting someone's head off will cause them to die, so if I intentionally cut off someone's head, then I am responsible for murder, not manslaughter.
Apparently some people may use "perfectly well" to actually mean "imperfectly well". But since this is Dan we're talking about, I assumed he wouldn't use such a blatant misnomer, and that he actually really meant what he said.
If what he really meant is something like "to an outside observer, calquing a misnomer is silly", one has to wonder how the calquer himself managed to be completely unaware of the silliness, if it's so obvious to everyone else, and furthermore, how the calque managed to spread to all those people who supposedly see inherent silliness in it.
My hypothesis is that there is in fact no significant inherent silliness to misnomer calques, except in the minds of a very few people, who have no real impact on how language works.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Brian M. Scott - 13 Feb 2010 19:47 GMT On Sat, 13 Feb 2010 13:27:07 -0500, Nathan Sanders <nsanders@williams.edu> wrote in <news:nsanders-04477C.13270713022010@host81-136-209-74.in-addr.btopenworld.com> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
> In article > <4bdd9499-c7cd-4ce9-979e-503006354749@d37g2000yqa.googlegroups.com>,
>>> Perhaps you and I have different definitions of "perfectly"?
>> Mine doesn't mean "in a way that's available for active >> use at all times".
> That sounds like imperfect knowledge, then!
> If I know "perfectly well" that action X causes > consequence Y, and I intentionally perform action X, > then I have intentionally caused consequence Y, too. Perhaps this is true as you use the term, but the fact remains that 'perfectly well' is very often used more loosely, in the fashion examplified by Jerry's example.
[...]
> Apparently some people may use "perfectly well" to > actually mean "imperfectly well". It's a very common usage. In my experience it's probably the *most* common usage in 'know perfectly well' and 'perfectly well aware'.
[...]
Brian
Nathan Sanders - 13 Feb 2010 20:27 GMT > On Sat, 13 Feb 2010 13:27:07 -0500, Nathan Sanders > <nsanders@williams.edu> wrote in [quoted text clipped - 19 lines] > remains that 'perfectly well' is very often used more > loosely, in the fashion examplified by Jerry's example. Since this was coming from Dan, I wasn't expecting casual use of such a blatant misnomer!
> > Apparently some people may use "perfectly well" to > > actually mean "imperfectly well". > > It's a very common usage. In my experience it's probably > the *most* common usage in 'know perfectly well' and > 'perfectly well aware'. When I say "you knew perfectly well that X would cause Y", I usually follow up with something like "so why on earth did you cause Y?", not something like "oh well, how could you have possibly expected Y to happen?".
I don't feel like my usage is different from what I've heard around me from other people (I certainly got punished as a kid for consequences that I knew "perfectly well" would happen as a result of my actions).
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Brian M. Scott - 13 Feb 2010 23:13 GMT On Sat, 13 Feb 2010 15:27:01 -0500, Nathan Sanders <nsanders@williams.edu> wrote in <news:nsanders-C96E2A.15270113022010@host81-136-209-74.in-addr.btopenworld.com> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
>> On Sat, 13 Feb 2010 13:27:07 -0500, Nathan Sanders >> <nsanders@williams.edu> wrote in >> <news:nsanders-04477C.13270713022010@host81-136-209-74.in-addr.btopenworld.com >> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
>>> In article >>> <4bdd9499-c7cd-4ce9-979e-503006354749@d37g2000yqa.googlegroups.com>,
>>>>> Perhaps you and I have different definitions of "perfectly"?
>>>> Mine doesn't mean "in a way that's available for active >>>> use at all times".
>>> That sounds like imperfect knowledge, then!
>>> If I know "perfectly well" that action X causes >>> consequence Y, and I intentionally perform action X, >>> then I have intentionally caused consequence Y, too.
>> Perhaps this is true as you use the term, but the fact >> remains that 'perfectly well' is very often used more >> loosely, in the fashion examplified by Jerry's example.
> Since this was coming from Dan, I wasn't expecting casual > use of such a blatant misnomer! On the other hand, everyday idioms are sneaky little buggers that can easily slip in unnoticed.
>>> Apparently some people may use "perfectly well" to >>> actually mean "imperfectly well".
>> It's a very common usage. In my experience it's probably >> the *most* common usage in 'know perfectly well' and >> 'perfectly well aware'.
> When I say "you knew perfectly well that X would cause Y", > I usually follow up with something like "so why on earth > did you cause Y?", not something like "oh well, how > could you have possibly expected Y to happen?". That doesn't make sense: no one is suggesting that 'oh well, how could you possibly have expected Y to happen?' is an appropriate follow-up to 'you knew perfectly well that X would cause Y'. The alternative follow-up under discussion is something like 'so how could you possibly not have expected Y to happen?'. One might continue with 'What *were* you thinking?!', possibly followed by 'Never mind; you obviously *weren't* thinking'.
[...]
Brian
Nathan Sanders - 14 Feb 2010 01:12 GMT [snip]
(I hope you don't take offense to my total snippage. I like and respect you, and I'm sure I agree with you, as I typically do, so I probably miscommunicated my thoughts (possibly even to myself) somewhere along the line. I just don't care enough about the current subthread to figure out where.)
My original point is that there is no reason for misnomer calquers to expect their creations to be thought of as silly, because (for better or worse) there isn't a critical mass of people like Dan in the world.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Brian M. Scott - 14 Feb 2010 04:22 GMT On Sat, 13 Feb 2010 20:12:51 -0500, Nathan Sanders <nsanders@williams.edu> wrote in <news:nsanders-09FF83.20125113022010@host81-136-209-74.in-addr.btopenworld.com> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
> [snip]
> (I hope you don't take offense to my total snippage. I > like and respect you, and I'm sure I agree with you, as > I typically do, so I probably miscommunicated my > thoughts (possibly even to myself) somewhere along the > line. I just don't care enough about the current > subthread to figure out where.) No problem.
> My original point is that there is no reason for misnomer > calquers to expect their creations to be thought of as > silly, because (for better or worse) there isn't a > critical mass of people like Dan in the world. And with that I quite agree.
Brian
Harlan Messinger - 13 Feb 2010 19:47 GMT > In article > <4bdd9499-c7cd-4ce9-979e-503006354749@d37g2000yqa.googlegroups.com>, [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > intentionally perform action X, then I have intentionally caused > consequence Y, too. And yet the failure to grasp this is the recurring, inexhaustible premise of many television situation comedies.
Peter T. Daniels - 13 Feb 2010 22:04 GMT > In article > <4bdd9499-c7cd-4ce9-979e-503006354...@d37g2000yqa.googlegroups.com>, [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > > That sounds like imperfect knowledge, then! It's an _idiom_. This disease of taking everything perfectly literally seems to be spreading.
> If I know "perfectly well" that action X causes consequence Y, and I > intentionally perform action X, then I have intentionally caused [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > them to die, so if I intentionally cut off someone's head, then I am > responsible for murder, not manslaughter. No, that's for the jury to decide.
> Apparently some people may use "perfectly well" to actually mean > "imperfectly well". But since this is Dan we're talking about, I [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > silliness to misnomer calques, except in the minds of a very few > people, who have no real impact on how language works. Chuck Riggs - 14 Feb 2010 14:36 GMT >> In article >> <67d766a6-716d-4386-a10a-1a572974c...@s25g2000prd.googlegroups.com>, [quoted text clipped - 31 lines] >to what I'm doing but fail to consider it, I may well say "Silly me" >when I realize it, but I wasn't being intentionally silly. I might risk it here, Jerry, but can a man safely say "silly me", out West?
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Regards,
Chuck Riggs, An American who lives near Dublin, Ireland and usually spells in BrE
Dan McGrath - 04 Mar 2010 18:18 GMT >In article ><67d766a6-716d-4386-a10a-1a572974cf8c@s25g2000prd.googlegroups.com>, [quoted text clipped - 27 lines] >If he didn't intend that implication, then I don't understand why he >brought up the calquer's knowledge in the first place. When I had first read about calquing back around 1995 or so, the authors of the books I was reading must not have made it sound like it was an automatic linguistic process like, say, assimilation ("in-" + "proper" = "iMproper", not *"iNproper"). I probably thought all these years that calquing was an actual linguistic *tradition*, i.e., that with idiomatic names, people tended to prefer to translate the original name over making up an entirely new name, though I didn't know what the advantage would have been. I must have thought that the people who were preserving the "literal" meanings of such terms were doing so *intentionally*. Obviously it would be silly to do this if one knows perfectly well that the term would be a misnomer if one were to take it literally.
I am now starting to think that calquing *is* an automatic linguistic process, and Ekkehard Dengler (in my other thread) seemed to suggest this when trying to explain how the Swedish "Östersjön" (= the Baltic Sea) became the Finnish "Itämeri". People probably just have a habit of forming names for things in other languages by translation because it seems like an "obvious" solution, and they automatically preserve the literal meaning without even realizing that the literal meaning is in fact irrelevant. In Ekkehard's example, someone must have carried over the "east" element of the Swedish name into Finnish but failed to realize that to a Finn it would be misleading. Right? Is *this* the kind of thing that you think is going on?
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 04 Mar 2010 20:33 GMT > In Ekkehard's example, someone must have carried > over the "east" element of the Swedish name into Finnish but failed to > realize that to a Finn it would be misleading. Right? Is *this* the > kind of thing that you think is going on? Close. I would replace "failed to realize that to a Finn it would be misleading" with "doesn't care that to a very few unusually literal-minded Finns it might possibly be misleading".
Non-compositionality is *so* common in language that ordinary speakers simply just don't notice it in the vast majority of cases. Ordinary Finns aren't going to be "mislead" by "Itämeri", and the original calquers knew this (if they even bothered to think about it at all, which I doubt they did).
Nearly all of the conscious thought put into this process lies exclusively in the act of translating individual words. That's it. Beyond that, ordinary speakers put very little serious thought into parsing out the literal compositional meaning of non-compositional phrases (calqued or otherwise). When I order a dozen "buffalo wings", and my plate comes back with a mixture of wings and legs, I don't complain to the waiter about having gotten the wrong order. I just happily eat my wings, including the ones that aren't.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 05 Mar 2010 17:11 GMT >> In Ekkehard's example, someone must have carried >> over the "east" element of the Swedish name into Finnish but failed to [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] >calquers knew this (if they even bothered to think about it at all, >which I doubt they did). How would you feel if the Finnish name had been the equivalent of "Western Sea", or "Southern Sea", or "Northern Sea"?
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 05 Mar 2010 17:19 GMT > >> In Ekkehard's example, someone must have carried > >> over the "east" element of the Swedish name into Finnish but failed to [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > How would you feel if the Finnish name had been the equivalent of > "Western Sea", or "Southern Sea", or "Northern Sea"? About the same as I feel about guinea pigs being named "guinea pigs".
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Adam Funk - 05 Mar 2010 20:32 GMT >> How would you feel if the Finnish name had been the equivalent of >> "Western Sea", or "Southern Sea", or "Northern Sea"? > > About the same as I feel about guinea pigs being named "guinea pigs". Cochons d'Inde, or people who volunteer for experiments?
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Nathan Sanders - 05 Mar 2010 20:56 GMT > >> How would you feel if the Finnish name had been the equivalent of > >> "Western Sea", or "Southern Sea", or "Northern Sea"? > > > > About the same as I feel about guinea pigs being named "guinea pigs". > > Cochons d'Inde, or people who volunteer for experiments? Either/both.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 11 Mar 2010 18:41 GMT >> In Ekkehard's example, someone must have carried >> over the "east" element of the Swedish name into Finnish but failed to [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] >misleading" with "doesn't care that to a very few unusually >literal-minded Finns it might possibly be misleading". How about I simply replace it with "failed to realize that the existing name in Swedish was non-compositional", as you suggest in your next paragraph?
>Non-compositionality is *so* common in language that ordinary speakers >simply just don't notice it in the vast majority of cases. Ordinary >Finns aren't going to be "mislead" by "Itämeri", and the original >calquers knew this (if they even bothered to think about it at all, >which I doubt they did). [...]
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 11 Mar 2010 20:26 GMT > >> In Ekkehard's example, someone must have carried > >> over the "east" element of the Swedish name into Finnish but failed to [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > existing name in Swedish was non-compositional", as you suggest in > your next paragraph? I said that the resulting calque *in Finnish* was non-compositional (or more precisely, that the compositional reading of the phrase doesn't match reality: the "east sea" is west of Finland). The original Swedish name has a transparent compositional meaning that does line up with reality (the "east sea" is east of Sweden).
I thought this mismatch was the whole reason this particular calque was of interest to you!
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
PaulJK - 12 Mar 2010 05:26 GMT >>>> In Ekkehard's example, someone must have carried >>>> over the "east" element of the Swedish name into Finnish but failed to [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] >>> misleading" with "doesn't care that to a very few unusually >>> literal-minded Finns it might possibly be misleading". I don't think we should automatically assume that 'east sea' would be misleading even to a few unusually literal-minded Finns.
Looking around the world we see many names of geographical features with 'east/west/north/south/or similar' in their names, not necessarily "correctly" related in respect to geographical positions of the speakers' home countries.
As far as Finns are concerned they could have just as well consider the several seas from the Atlantic in the west to the 'east sea' in the east as a sequence of significance. It was in these seas they were fishing and conducting business most often, these were the seas they had the greatest cultural ties with and the 'east sea' was the most easterly one of them. What does it matter that only a relatively small part of it is truly east of Helsinki.
pjk
>> How about I simply replace it with "failed to realize that the >> existing name in Swedish was non-compositional", as you suggest in [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > > Nathan Nathan Sanders - 12 Mar 2010 06:56 GMT > >>>> In Ekkehard's example, someone must have carried > >>>> over the "east" element of the Swedish name into Finnish but failed to [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > would be misleading even to a few unusually literal-minded > Finns. That's why I said "might possibly". I used the double hedge (along with "very few") to emphasize that I don't really think any statistically significant number of Finns would be mislead.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Peter Moylan - 12 Mar 2010 08:26 GMT > That's why I said "might possibly". I used the double hedge (along > with "very few") to emphasize that I don't really think any > statistically significant number of Finns would be mislead. Oy!
(But that verb often misles me, too.)
 Signature Peter Moylan, Newcastle, NSW, Australia. http://www.pmoylan.org For an e-mail address, see my web page.
Nathan Sanders - 12 Mar 2010 15:47 GMT > > That's why I said "might possibly". I used the double hedge (along > > with "very few") to emphasize that I don't really think any [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > (But that verb often misles me, too.) Oops!
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
musika - 12 Mar 2010 17:44 GMT >>> That's why I said "might possibly". I used the double hedge (along >>> with "very few") to emphasize that I don't really think any [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > > Oops! No. Jocular.
 Signature Ray UK
Adam Funk - 12 Mar 2010 20:51 GMT > That's why I said "might possibly". I used the double hedge (along > with "very few") to emphasize that I don't really think any > statistically significant number of Finns would be mislead. I'd use it to be really sure of keeping the sheep & goats apart.
 Signature Oh, I do most of my quality thinking on the old sandbox. [Bucky Katt]
PaulJK - 13 Mar 2010 03:57 GMT >>>>>> In Ekkehard's example, someone must have carried >>>>>> over the "east" element of the Swedish name into Finnish but failed to [quoted text clipped - 12 lines] > with "very few") to emphasize that I don't really think any > statistically significant number of Finns would be mislead. Sorry Nathan, the way I expressed myself clumsily. I didn't mean to contradict what you said, just to follow on from it to saying that 'east sea' might not be an a priori illogical name even for people living to the east of it.
pjk
PaulJK - 13 Mar 2010 04:03 GMT >>>>>>> In Ekkehard's example, someone must have carried >>>>>>> over the "east" element of the Swedish name into Finnish but failed to [quoted text clipped - 14 lines] > > Sorry Nathan, the way I expressed myself clumsily. Aaah, and now again.
> I didn't > mean to contradict what you said, just to follow on from it > to saying that 'east sea' might not be an a priori illogical name > even for people living to the east of it. > > pjk Nathan Sanders - 13 Mar 2010 04:49 GMT > >>>>>> In Ekkehard's example, someone must have carried > >>>>>> over the "east" element of the Swedish name into Finnish but failed to [quoted text clipped - 17 lines] > to saying that 'east sea' might not be an a priori illogical name > even for people living to the east of it. Gotcha. I'm pretty sure we agree. :-)
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 15 Mar 2010 17:28 GMT >> >> In Ekkehard's example, someone must have carried >> >> over the "east" element of the Swedish name into Finnish but failed to [quoted text clipped - 17 lines] >I thought this mismatch was the whole reason this particular calque >was of interest to you! But "Östersjön" was already a single lexeme in Swedish, wasn't it? It's the *name* of the sea in question. (How about "Long Island" in southeastern New York state, where my parents live? That refers only to one particular island that is long, so it's obviously more than just "long" + "island".)
"Rare steak" is two lexemes, "Pacific Ocean" is only one. This is what I had been assuming you were referring to when you wrote about "compositional" and "non-compositional" phrases. If "Pacific Ocean" denoted an ocean that was actually peaceful, I would have still called it a non-compositional expression.
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 15 Mar 2010 17:52 GMT > >> >> In Ekkehard's example, someone must have carried > >> >> over the "east" element of the Swedish name into Finnish but failed to [quoted text clipped - 29 lines] > denoted an ocean that was actually peaceful, I would have still called > it a non-compositional expression. I worded my response very carefully: The original Swedish name has a transparent compositional meaning that does line up with reality (the "east sea" is east of Sweden).
It *also* has a specific referent (not just any sea of Sweden, but a specific one).
It's possible to have both.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 16 Mar 2010 18:13 GMT >> >I said that the resulting calque *in Finnish* was non-compositional >> >(or more precisely, that the compositional reading of the phrase >> >doesn't match reality: the "east sea" is west of Finland). So, going by your "Green Arrow" example, the Finnish name that means "east sea" is analogous to "Flèche Verte", and a name that meant "west sea" would have been the equivalent of "Archer Masqué"? I hope you're not going to tell me that the hypothetical renderings "north sea" and "south sea" should equate to "Flèche Novice"!
>The >> >original Swedish name has a transparent compositional meaning that [quoted text clipped - 23 lines] > >It's possible to have both. So then, does that make that Swedish name one lexeme or two? Must it be mentally memorized (unlike "rare steak")?
Look, here's what you had written last month:
# Calques are also a mistake, just of a different type: in a calque, the # individual words and morphemes are translated correctly, but the # entire phrase is not, because transparent compositionality has # (wrongly) been assumed to hold.
It follows that "Östersjön" must be non-compositional.
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 16 Mar 2010 21:05 GMT > >> >I said that the resulting calque *in Finnish* was non-compositional > >> >(or more precisely, that the compositional reading of the phrase [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > "east sea" is analogous to "Flèche Verte", and a name that meant "west > sea" would have been the equivalent of "Archer Masqué"? Yes.
> I hope you're > not going to tell me that the hypothetical renderings "north sea" and > "south sea" should equate to "Flèche Novice"! No, because "novice" is the translation of a different meaning of "green", not just some random word.
An analogous translation of "East Sea" might be something like "Asian Sea" (it depends on what "east" can mean in Swedish, of course.)
> >> "Rare steak" is two lexemes, "Pacific Ocean" is only one. This is > >> what I had been assuming you were referring to when you wrote about [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > So then, does that make that Swedish name one lexeme or two? Must it > be mentally memorized (unlike "rare steak")? It has one lexical entry that must be memorized. It also happens to be able to be transparently interpreted compositionally in a way that lines up very nicely with the phrase-qua-name.
There are clearly at least three types of phrases under discussion:
(1) phrases like "rare steak", which identify all the objects in the set of things described by the compositional interpretation (all steaks that are rare are "rare steaks"); the whole phrase does not need to be memorized, because the compositional meaning gives you the correct interpretation
(2) phrases like "Östersjön" in Swedish, which identify specific objects in the set of things described by the compositional interpretation (Östersjön is one of multiple seas east of Sweden (Baltic, White, Black, Barents, Kara, Caspian, Aral, etc.), though it is the closest, so probably the most salient); the whole phrase must be memorized to know which particular objects are referred to; the compositional meaning can help give you a clue to which specific object is referred to, but without memorization, you'd only be guessing
(3) phrases like "guinea pig", which identify particular objects in the world that are not in the set of things described by the compositional interpretation (guinea pigs are not even in the same order as pigs, and they are not from Guinea); the whole phrase must be memorized, and the compositional meaning must be ignored, because if you follow the compositional meaning, you couldn't guess the correct objects being referred to
> Look, here's what you had written last month: > [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > > It follows that "Östersjön" must be non-compositional. Obviously, the compositionality of a phrase containing *relative* terms ("east", "left", "ahead") is interpreted relative to the person using the phrase. "Östersjön" is compositional for Swedes, but not for Finns. When I use the pronoun "me", it refers to a different person than when anyone else uses it. If I use "may car" to refer to my car, it's compositional for me; if you use "my car" to refer to my car rather than yours, it is clearly not compositional for you!
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 17 Mar 2010 18:24 GMT >> >> >I said that the resulting calque *in Finnish* was non-compositional >> >> >(or more precisely, that the compositional reading of the phrase [quoted text clipped - 15 lines] >An analogous translation of "East Sea" might be something like "Asian >Sea" (it depends on what "east" can mean in Swedish, of course.) So then what *do* you make of "North Sea"/"South Sea"? Are these as seriously bad as "Asian Sea" would be?
If you're going to say "no", then you apparently don't realize that choosing "some random word" for a name could theoretically produce "Asian Sea" or "Flèche Novice" by chance. And one could then make a case for defending those names. I guess your idea that "Flèche Novice" would be a serious mistake must depend on the assumption that the coiner of this French name had related the "green" in the character's English name to its meaning of "inexperienced"?
I've been wanting to ask you, though: what about "Greenland"? Would any of the meanings that "green" has in English be the "right" one in that case? The accepted French name is simply "Groenland", approximately echoing the island's original Scandinavian name (and the other Romance languages seem to have done the same thing), but suppose that the French had chosen to calque the word "Greenland" instead. They could have rendered it at least three ways: "Verteterre", "Noviceterre", "Pâleterre". Do you think that any of those choices is "worse" than the others? To me, there doesn't seem to be any obvious reason why one of the names should be more appropriate than the other two.
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 17 Mar 2010 20:16 GMT > >An analogous translation of "East Sea" might be something like "Asian > >Sea" (it depends on what "east" can mean in Swedish, of course.) > > So then what *do* you make of "North Sea"/"South Sea"? Are these as > seriously bad as "Asian Sea" would be? They're not even translations. They're just sticking a random word in the phrase.
> If you're going to say "no", then you apparently don't realize that > choosing "some random word" for a name could theoretically produce > "Asian Sea" or "Flèche Novice" by chance. You could also by chance happen to get the correct translation. That doesn't mean that doing things by random chance is the correct method.
> And one could then make a > case for defending those names. Yes one could, because those are actual translations. One of the meanings of "green" *is* 'novice'. That just happens not to be the meaning intended in "Green Arrow", but is a possible meaning of "green".
In contrast, *none* of the meanings of "east" are 'north' or 'south', so if you "translate" "east" as "north", you have in fact not engaged in the act of translation at all.
> I guess your idea that "Flèche > Novice" would be a serious mistake must depend on the assumption that > the coiner of this French name had related the "green" in the > character's English name to its meaning of "inexperienced"? Yes, I thought that part was obvious. The mistake is in choosing the wrong meaning to translate. Someone who did that would have looked up "green" in his physical or mental dictionary and then chose meaning #9 instead of meaning #1.
But no matter where you look in the dictionary entry for "east", you aren't going to find either one of the meanings 'north' or 'south', because "east" simply never has those meanings.
> I've been wanting to ask you, though: what about "Greenland"? Would > any of the meanings that "green" has in English be the "right" one in [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > reason why one of the names should be more appropriate than the other > two. If they're calquing a calque instead of the original, does it really matter? At that point, we're so far removed from the original intended meaning that I have no opinion one way or the other on which choices are better or worse. Let them go crazy with the language if they want.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 29 Mar 2010 18:30 GMT >> And one could then make a >> case for defending those names. [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] >so if you "translate" "east" as "north", you have in fact not engaged >in the act of translation at all. But none of the meanings of "east" are "west" either, so by your logic, that should also rule out "West Sea" and "Archer Masqué"! What is the advantage of the Finns referring to the Baltic Sea as the "East" Sea, rather than the "North" or "South" Sea, just because that was what the Swedes had previously called it?
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 29 Mar 2010 18:44 GMT > >> And one could then make a > >> case for defending those names. [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > But none of the meanings of "east" are "west" either, so by your > logic, that should also rule out "West Sea" and "Archer Masqué"! Those are translations of concepts.
> What > is the advantage of the Finns referring to the Baltic Sea as the > "East" Sea, rather than the "North" or "South" Sea, just because that > was what the Swedes had previously called it? Yes.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 30 Mar 2010 19:07 GMT >> What >> is the advantage of the Finns referring to the Baltic Sea as the >> "East" Sea, rather than the "North" or "South" Sea, just because that >> was what the Swedes had previously called it? > >Yes. Huh? The answer to a question beginning "What is the advantage of" is "Yes"?
BTW, did you see my post in this thread dated 3/23? Are you going to respond to it? I certainly thought you'd be able to make some sort of comment on it.
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 30 Mar 2010 19:20 GMT > >> What > >> is the advantage of the Finns referring to the Baltic Sea as the [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > Huh? The answer to a question beginning "What is the advantage of" is > "Yes"? I'm agreeing with your suggested answer to your own question ("because that was what the Swedes had previously called it").
> BTW, did you see my post in this thread dated 3/23? Are you going to > respond to it? I certainly thought you'd be able to make some sort of > comment on it. I honestly didn't have anything new to say in response.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 01 Apr 2010 17:17 GMT >> >> What >> >> is the advantage of the Finns referring to the Baltic Sea as the [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] >I'm agreeing with your suggested answer to your own question ("because >that was what the Swedes had previously called it"). Actually, it was not a suggested answer; it was really a part of the question. I was asking: What advantage is there of the Finns using, for the Baltic Sea, a name that means "East Sea" rather than one that means "North Sea" or "South Sea" [observe that from a Finn's point of view, *none* of these make sense] simply because the Swedes had already used that kind of name? In other words, what advantage is there of the Finns giving it essentially the same name as the Swedes?
>> BTW, did you see my post in this thread dated 3/23? Are you going to >> respond to it? I certainly thought you'd be able to make some sort of >> comment on it. > >I honestly didn't have anything new to say in response. Why was that? I was quite surprised. You couldn't even answer the question at the end about why the hypothetical "North Sea"/"South Sea" would have been worse than "East Sea"? Of course, that's the matter we're discussing right now, but I can't believe you would not want to respond to any post that has a question in it. Anyway, do you understand exactly what the point was to my post of March 23?
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 01 Apr 2010 19:14 GMT > >> >> What > >> >> is the advantage of the Finns referring to the Baltic Sea as the [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > already used that kind of name? In other words, what advantage is > there of the Finns giving it essentially the same name as the Swedes? My answer is still the same: Precisely because it's essentially the same name as the Swedes'.
This is an obvious advantage for Swedes learning Finnish, for Finns learning Swedish, and for anyone anyone learning both languages.
Naming it "North Sea" or "South Sea" or "Bob's Big Bad Body of Water" wouldn't be an advantage for anyone, because no one relevant calls it any of those things.
Maybe Palauans call it "North Sea", but Palauans are obviously not relevant to the linguistic ties between Sweden and Finland.
> >> BTW, did you see my post in this thread dated 3/23? Are you going to > >> respond to it? I certainly thought you'd be able to make some sort of [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > Why was that? Because I thought the response was so obvious it didn't need to be given.
> I was quite surprised. You couldn't even answer the > question at the end about why the hypothetical "North Sea"/"South Sea" > would have been worse than "East Sea"? Because "North Sea" and "South Sea" are random and arbitrary. "East Sea" is a calque.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Peter T. Daniels - 01 Apr 2010 23:29 GMT > In article <kjh9r5lerpvs64anie4145pc8ucb1op...@4ax.com>, > [quoted text clipped - 53 lines] > Because "North Sea" and "South Sea" are random and arbitrary. "East > Sea" is a calque. There's already a North Sea not too far south of there.
Nathan Sanders - 02 Apr 2010 02:04 GMT In article <216c178a-edd1-4a49-b90f-2fbf334e5555@g28g2000yqh.googlegroups.com>,
> > In article <kjh9r5lerpvs64anie4145pc8ucb1op...@4ax.com>, > > [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > > There's already a North Sea not too far south of there. And that.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 06 Apr 2010 17:09 GMT >> Actually, it was not a suggested answer; it was really a part of the >> question. I was asking: What advantage is there of the Finns using, [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] >Maybe Palauans call it "North Sea", but Palauans are obviously not >relevant to the linguistic ties between Sweden and Finland. But by that logic, wouldn't there be an advantage for English speakers learning German if the speakers of the latter started using "selten" for lightly cooked meat? If they already knew the one meaning of the word ("rare") some of them might think, upon encountering it in a cooking context, "hmm... could that by any chance be 'rare' as in rare meat"? You've had problems with that one ever since we started discussing calques two years ago!
I had thought of how calquing a term into another language could give learners of that language an advantage in the way that you mention, but in my opinion it's a bit too "clever" to do this. In any case, if this is done we should expect lots of calques that, as with "rare", have no etymological justification, so why do we apparently not get very many things in language that are etymologically "mistranslations"?
>> >> BTW, did you see my post in this thread dated 3/23? Are you going to >> >> respond to it? I certainly thought you'd be able to make some sort of [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] >Because I thought the response was so obvious it didn't need to be >given. It wasn't obvious to me!
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 06 Apr 2010 18:00 GMT > >> Actually, it was not a suggested answer; it was really a part of the > >> question. I was asking: What advantage is there of the Finns using, [quoted text clipped - 20 lines] > learning German if the speakers of the latter started using "selten" > for lightly cooked meat? No. "Selten" doesn't mean 'lightly cooked', it means 'uncommon; seldom'.
> If they already knew the one meaning of the > word ("rare") some of them might think, upon encountering it in a > cooking context, "hmm... could that by any chance be 'rare' as in rare > meat"? No, because typical English speakers don't think of "rare" and "rare" as the same word.
> You've had problems with that one ever since we started > discussing calques two years ago! I've had no problem with "rare" and "rare" whatsoever. They are two completely separate words that happen to have the same spelling and same pronunciation. They are as distinct as "(river) bank" and "(financial) bank", "(ribbon) bow" and "bow (and arrow)", and "(ballpoint) pen" and "(pig) pen".
> I had thought of how calquing a term into another language could give > learners of that language an advantage in the way that you mention, [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > very many things in language that are etymologically > "mistranslations"? If you calque a phrase containing a word meaning 'east' to have a compositional meaning built on the meaning 'east', that makes sense. This is only a problem if the original phrase happens not to have a compositional meaning.
If you calque a phrase containing a word meaning 'slightly cooked' to have a compositional meaning built on the meaning 'uncommon', you screwed up. You looked at the wrong entry in the dictionary.
These are two completely different phenomena, so why would you expect the existence of one to necessarily predict the equal existence of the other?
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 07 Apr 2010 17:58 GMT >> >> Actually, it was not a suggested answer; it was really a part of the >> >> question. I was asking: What advantage is there of the Finns using, [quoted text clipped - 23 lines] >No. "Selten" doesn't mean 'lightly cooked', it means 'uncommon; >seldom'. I said, if the German speakers, *hypothetically*, started using "lightly cooked" as a new meaning of the word "selten" -- after English "rare", of course. This would not be calquing a *phrase*; it would be calquing a single word on the basis of the word's most usual meaning. It's much like "ratón", Spanish for "[computer] mouse", which I mentioned in our 2008 thread. I guess the difference for you would be that you'd expect the typical English speaker to think of "mouse" (the rodent) and "mouse" (the pointing device) as the same word, unlike "rare".
Me, I probably do not think of the two kinds of "mouse" as the same word, and I suppose I wouldn't call "honeymoon" a synchronic compound of "honey" and "moon", either. If I had run into the French expression "lune de miel" as a small child, I wouldn't have necessarily expected it to mean "honeymoon", even if I knew that "lune" meant "moon" and "miel" meant "honey". In fact, I would have been quite surprised when I discovered that it did mean "honeymoon".
[...]
>> I had thought of how calquing a term into another language could give >> learners of that language an advantage in the way that you mention, [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] >This is only a problem if the original phrase happens not to have a >compositional meaning. You mean like "Pacific Ocean"?
[...]
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 07 Apr 2010 18:51 GMT > >> >> Actually, it was not a suggested answer; it was really a part of the > >> >> question. I was asking: What advantage is there of the Finns using, [quoted text clipped - 27 lines] > "lightly cooked" as a new meaning of the word "selten" -- after > English "rare", of course. I know what you said. My answer is still the same. Translating the wrong word is not an advantage.
> This would not be calquing a *phrase*; it > would be calquing a single word on the basis of the word's most usual > meaning. You asked specifically about the phrase "rare steak", and the most usual meaning of "rare steak" is definitely *not* 'uncommon steak'. Context matters.
> It's much like "ratón", Spanish for "[computer] mouse", > which I mentioned in our 2008 thread. I guess the difference for you > would be that you'd expect the typical English speaker to think of > "mouse" (the rodent) and "mouse" (the pointing device) as the same > word, unlike "rare". Not necessarily the "same word" (I'm a splitter when it comes to lexical entries), but certainly metaphorically related.
> >If you calque a phrase containing a word meaning 'east' to have a > >compositional meaning built on the meaning 'east', that makes sense. > > You mean like "Pacific Ocean"? Yes.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 08 Apr 2010 18:20 GMT >> This would not be calquing a *phrase*; it >> would be calquing a single word on the basis of the word's most usual [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] >usual meaning of "rare steak" is definitely *not* 'uncommon steak'. >Context matters. Forget the "steak" part. In 2008 I kept discussing the two-word phrase "rare steak", but I shouldn't have. I'm now convinced, from reading various comments of yours in this thread and my earlier thread ("rare steak" has a meaning that is perfectly computable from "rare" and "steak" and does not require a lexical entry) that the only part of the phrase that is relevant to the present discussion is the one word "rare". No, "uncommon steak" is certainly not the most usual meaning of "rare steak", but "uncommon" may well be the most usual meaning of "rare".
And in case you didn't realize, it *is* possible to calque a single monomorphemic word rather than a phrase, as the "mouse"/"ratón" example shows. That was part of the point of my previous post.
>> It's much like "ratón", Spanish for "[computer] mouse", >> which I mentioned in our 2008 thread. I guess the difference for you [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] >Not necessarily the "same word" (I'm a splitter when it comes to >lexical entries), but certainly metaphorically related. So what exactly do *you* mean by "the same word"?
>> >If you calque a phrase containing a word meaning 'east' to have a >> >compositional meaning built on the meaning 'east', that makes sense. In your previous post you had also written: "This is only a problem if the original phrase happens not to have a compositional meaning." That's what my "Pacific Ocean" question was in response to. Why did you snip that sentence?
>> You mean like "Pacific Ocean"? - Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 08 Apr 2010 21:27 GMT > >> It's much like "ratón", Spanish for "[computer] mouse", > >> which I mentioned in our 2008 thread. I guess the difference for you [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > > So what exactly do *you* mean by "the same word"? The have the same phonology (pronunciation), syntax (lexical category, syntactic features), morphology (both regular and irregular), and semantics (at minimum, they satisfy the same semantic selectional restrictions).
"Mouse" and "mouse" do have the same phonology (/maUs/) and same basic syntax (common count noun), but they have different morphology ("mice" is the only grammatical plural for rodents, but it is in competition with "mouses" for computer peripherals), and very different semantics ("the startled mouse ran away" is perfectly fine for rodents, but it is bizarre for computer peripherals, because of the semantic selectional restrictions of both "startled" and "ran away").
We also see further differences in the behavior of other words derived from these two. If you "mouse over" something, you are using a computer peripheral, not a rodent. If you are a "mousy" person, you are meek or stealthy like a rodent, not electronic or plastic like a computer peripheral. In each case, the derived word is built from only one of the two "mouse"s. If they were the same word, these derived words would be expected to be derived from both at the same time.
> >> >If you calque a phrase containing a word meaning 'east' to have a > >> >compositional meaning built on the meaning 'east', that makes sense. [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > That's what my "Pacific Ocean" question was in response to. Why did > you snip that sentence? Because that sentence was only relevant in the context of the rest of my post, which you had snipped. I'm happy to discuss that sentence, but only taken in its proper context. Since you snipped that context, I assumed you had no interest in discussing it. (I have no interest in discussing my use of the word "problem", which I suspect is what you're concerned about.)
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 20 Apr 2010 18:56 GMT >> >> It's much like "ratón", Spanish for "[computer] mouse", >> >> which I mentioned in our 2008 thread. I guess the difference for you [quoted text clipped - 28 lines] >derived words would be expected to be derived from both at the same >time. So, are you saying that the two "mouse"s must have different lexical entries? Is that what you mean when you talk about "the same word" -- the same lexical entry?
But I suppose you must think the average speaker of English would nevertheless relate the two "mouse"s in some way, in spite of the different lexical entries. Whereas on the other hand they would not relate the two "rare"s. Maybe that's what I meant earlier when I thought you would expect typical English speakers to think of the "mouse"s as "the same word".
>> >> >If you calque a phrase containing a word meaning 'east' to have a >> >> >compositional meaning built on the meaning 'east', that makes sense. [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] >> That's what my "Pacific Ocean" question was in response to. Why did >> you snip that sentence? [snip]
Look, this is what I was trying to ask: You had said, "This [i.e., calquing a phrase] is only a problem if the original phrase happens not to have a compositional meaning". I was simply asking if "Pacific Ocean" would be an example of that. It certainly seemed like one to me; it has been calqued into numerous languages around the world, yet you did say it wasn't compositional.
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 20 Apr 2010 20:15 GMT > >> So what exactly do *you* mean by "the same word"? > > [quoted text clipped - 23 lines] > entries? Is that what you mean when you talk about "the same word" -- > the same lexical entry? Yes.
> But I suppose you must think the average speaker of English would > nevertheless relate the two "mouse"s in some way, in spite of the > different lexical entries. Of course. Relationship is not the same thing as equality. I am related to my sister, but we are not the same person.
> Whereas on the other hand they would not > relate the two "rare"s. Exactly. I resemble Anthony Edwards, but I am not him, nor am I aware of being related to him.
> >> >> >If you calque a phrase containing a word meaning 'east' to have a > >> >> >compositional meaning built on the meaning 'east', that makes sense. [quoted text clipped - 12 lines] > me; it has been calqued into numerous languages around the world, yet > you did say it wasn't compositional. It has a compositional reading, but that compositional reading does not correspond to reality (under the supposition that the Pacific Ocean is not in fact pacific).
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 24 May 2010 18:34 GMT >> >> >> >If you calque a phrase containing a word meaning 'east' to have a >> >> >> >compositional meaning built on the meaning 'east', that makes sense. [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] >not correspond to reality (under the supposition that the Pacific >Ocean is not in fact pacific). So being "compositional" is different from having a "compositional reading"? When would a phrase *not* have a compositional reading?
Where are you getting all this "compositional" and "non-compositional" stuff from, anyway? I've never seen a linguistics book that made use of those terms; I know them only from you.
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 24 May 2010 19:09 GMT > >> >> >> >If you calque a phrase containing a word meaning 'east' to have a > >> >> >> >compositional meaning built on the meaning 'east', that makes [quoted text clipped - 20 lines] > So being "compositional" is different from having a "compositional > reading"? No. I've just learned that it's better to more precise with my wording when responding to you.
> When would a phrase *not* have a compositional reading? When it doesn't have an available reading transparently derived in a predictable, algorithmic way from its component parts. This could happen because it doesn't have multiple component parts ("when", "phrase", "have", etc.), or it could happen because the phrase is foreign ("au revoir" does not have a compositional reading in English). Though idioms do usually have both a literal compositional reading and an idiomatic non-compositional reading, the compositional reading is usually very heavily suppressed (few people interpret "hold your horses", "just a second", or "pardon my French" literally).
But of course, the existence of a compositional reading isn't the point of my statement. The point is that the compositional reading doesn't match reality.
> Where are you getting all this "compositional" and "non-compositional" > stuff from, anyway? I've never seen a linguistics book that made use > of those terms; I know them only from you. You're reading the wrong books, then. Any decent introduction to semantics should cover compositionality. Also, try some Frege.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Adam Funk - 24 May 2010 20:18 GMT >> Where are you getting all this "compositional" and "non-compositional" >> stuff from, anyway? I've never seen a linguistics book that made use >> of those terms; I know them only from you. > > You're reading the wrong books, then. Any decent introduction to > semantics should cover compositionality. Also, try some Frege. Books on formal semantics, yes, but the ones aimed at less mathematically inclined linguists too?
 Signature I spend almost as much time figuring out what's wrong with my computer as I do actually using it. Networked software, especially, requires frequent updates and maintenance, all of which gets in the way of doing routine work. (Stoll 1995)
Nathan Sanders - 25 May 2010 21:16 GMT > >> Where are you getting all this "compositional" and "non-compositional" > >> stuff from, anyway? I've never seen a linguistics book that made use [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > Books on formal semantics, yes, but the ones aimed at less > mathematically inclined linguists too? If one wants to study semantics to any reasonably useful level beyond what can be found in the semantics chapter from a typical general introduction to linguistics, one is going to need some knowledge of math (at minimum, sentential logic: truth values, conjunction, disjunction, negation, implication, and the principle of compositionality).
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Peter T. Daniels - 25 May 2010 21:54 GMT > In article <l00rc7xmif....@news.ducksburg.com>, > [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > disjunction, negation, implication, and the principle of > compositionality). As an undergraduate, I took Semantics (with Max Black) in the Philosophy department, and Symbolic Logic in the Math department (the textbook was Kalish & Montague, as in the Montague who went on to invent Montague Grammar)..
(Black had Georg Hendrik von Wright address our undergraduate class -- why, I've no idea. He had immense eyebrows.)
Adam Funk - 26 May 2010 20:24 GMT > If one wants to study semantics to any reasonably useful level beyond > what can be found in the semantics chapter from a typical general > introduction to linguistics, one is going to need some knowledge of > math (at minimum, sentential logic: truth values, conjunction, > disjunction, negation, implication, and the principle of > compositionality). Sounds good to me. I wasn't sure how much of that sort of thing was covered in a "pure linguistics" curriculum.
 Signature "Mrs CJ and I avoid clichés like the plague."
Evan Kirshenbaum - 27 May 2010 00:32 GMT >> If one wants to study semantics to any reasonably useful level beyond >> what can be found in the semantics chapter from a typical general [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > Sounds good to me. I wasn't sure how much of that sort of thing was > covered in a "pure linguistics" curriculum. I forget now which class it was for, but one of my linguistics classes at Stanford in the '80s used as one of its texts McCawley's _Everything that Linguists have Always Wanted to Know About Logic (but were ashamed to ask)_. I'm pretty sure that it was one of the required courses.
 Signature Evan Kirshenbaum +------------------------------------ HP Laboratories |_Bauplan_ is just the German word 1501 Page Mill Road, 1U, MS 1141 |for blueprint. Typically, one Palo Alto, CA 94304 |switches languages to indicate |profundity. kirshenbaum@hpl.hp.com | Richard Dawkins (650)857-7572
http://www.kirshenbaum.net/
Adam Funk - 31 May 2010 19:36 GMT > I forget now which class it was for, but one of my linguistics classes > at Stanford in the '80s used as one of its texts McCawley's > _Everything that Linguists have Always Wanted to Know About Logic (but > were ashamed to ask)_. I'm pretty sure that it was one of the > required courses. I wonder how many "Everything $X always wanted to know about $Y" book titles there are. I assume $Y = "sex" was the original one.
 Signature A: Because it messes up the order in which people normally read text. Q: Why is top-posting such a bad thing? A: Top-posting. Q: What is the most annoying thing on usenet and in e-mail?
tony cooper - 31 May 2010 20:00 GMT >> I forget now which class it was for, but one of my linguistics classes >> at Stanford in the '80s used as one of its texts McCawley's [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] >I wonder how many "Everything $X always wanted to know about $Y" book >titles there are. I assume $Y = "sex" was the original one. An amount equal to the number of "$Y for Dummies" books.
 Signature Tony Cooper - Orlando, Florida
R H Draney - 31 May 2010 21:30 GMT tony cooper filted:
>>I wonder how many "Everything $X always wanted to know about $Y" book >>titles there are. I assume $Y = "sex" was the original one. > >An amount equal to the number of "$Y for Dummies" books. Surely there are more of the latter: from the humorously reparseable "Microsoft Works For Dummies" to the obsolescent "WebTV For Dummies" to the frightening "Sex For Dummies"....
I've been waiting for years now, and there's still no "Ventriloquism For Dummies"....r
 Signature "Oy! A cat made of lead cannot fly." - Mark Brader declaims a basic scientific principle
Mark Brader - 31 May 2010 20:13 GMT Adam Funk:
> I wonder how many "Everything $X always wanted to know about $Y" book > titles there are. I assume $Y = "sex" was the original one. In SBF, at the item on TTBOMKAB, Al Kriman includes an admittedly incomplete list of 48 titles used from 1977 to 2008 that, as he puts it, "sample" Reuben's title. About 3/4 of them include some variation on the original "But were Afraid to Ask" subtitle/footnote.
 Signature Mark Brader, Toronto | "Ah. I am now confused at a much more msb@vex.net | advanced level, thank you." --Mike Lyle
Adam Funk - 07 Apr 2010 20:56 GMT > I've had no problem with "rare" and "rare" whatsoever. They are two > completely separate words that happen to have the same spelling and > same pronunciation. They are as distinct as "(river) bank" and > "(financial) bank", "(ribbon) bow" and "bow (and arrow)", and > "(ballpoint) pen" and "(pig) pen". Some linguists (cough) don't recognize "homonym" status.
 Signature Oh, I am just a student, sir, and I only want to learn But it's hard to read through the rising smoke of the books that you want to burn [Phil Ochs]
Nathan Sanders - 07 Apr 2010 21:46 GMT > > I've had no problem with "rare" and "rare" whatsoever. They are two > > completely separate words that happen to have the same spelling and [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > Some linguists (cough) Who?
> don't recognize "homonym" status. What?
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Adam Funk - 08 Apr 2010 21:40 GMT >> > I've had no problem with "rare" and "rare" whatsoever. They are two >> > completely separate words that happen to have the same spelling and [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > > What? Well, I'm pretty sure Peter has claimed that linguistics doesn't recognize the distinction between homonymy & polysemy, but I can't find the exact message. He has definitely stated that lexicography has nothing to do with linguistics.
 Signature "It is the role of librarians to keep government running in difficult times," replied Dramoren. "Librarians are the last line of defence against chaos." (McMullen 2001)
Nathan Sanders - 08 Apr 2010 21:54 GMT > >> > I've had no problem with "rare" and "rare" whatsoever. They are two > >> > completely separate words that happen to have the same spelling and [quoted text clipped - 14 lines] > find the exact message. He has definitely stated that lexicography > has nothing to do with linguistics. Ah, okay. Yes, the difference between homonyms and polysemes doesn't seem to play a role in a speaker's synchronic language use, since speakers are largely unaware of the historical development of their language.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Alan Munn - 09 Apr 2010 00:17 GMT In article <nsanders-4FE3AB.16544308042010@74.sub-97-136-209.myvzw.com>,
> > >> > I've had no problem with "rare" and "rare" whatsoever. They are two > > >> > completely separate words that happen to have the same spelling and [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > > recognize the distinction between homonymy & polysemy, but I can't > > find the exact message. Fortunately, Peter doesn't speak for linguistics.
> > He has definitely stated that lexicography > > has nothing to do with linguistics. > > Ah, okay. Yes, the difference between homonyms and polysemes doesn't > seem to play a role in a speaker's synchronic language use, The psycholinguistic/neurolinguistic evidence doesn't support this claim. See e.g. the work of Liina Pylkkänen, and Alan Beretta, and colleagues.
e.g.
Pylkkänen, L., Llinas, R. & Murphy, G. (2006). Representation of polysemy: MEG evidence. Journal of Cognitive Neuroscience 18:1, pp. 1-13. <http://www.psych.nyu.edu/pylkkanen/papers/Pylkk_Llinas_Murphy_JCN2005_fi nal_accepted.pdf>
Beretta, Alan, Robert Fiorentino and David Poeppel. 2005. The effects of homonymy and polysemy on lexical access: an MEG study. Cognitive Brain Research 24:57 65.
<http://psych.nyu.edu/clash/dp_papers/beretta2005.pdf>
> since speakers are largely unaware of the historical development of their > language. Yes, we all agree on this, I hope! So if there is a synchronic difference, that can't exactly be the explanation.
Alan
Nathan Sanders - 09 Apr 2010 02:07 GMT In article <amunn-98C110.19173208042010@62-183-169-81.bb.dnainternet.fi>,
> In article > <nsanders-4FE3AB.16544308042010@74.sub-97-136-209.myvzw.com>, [quoted text clipped - 18 lines] > > Fortunately, Peter doesn't speak for linguistics.
:-)
> > > He has definitely stated that lexicography > > > has nothing to do with linguistics. [quoted text clipped - 19 lines] > > <http://psych.nyu.edu/clash/dp_papers/beretta2005.pdf> Nice! Thanks for the links. I didn't know about this work (I'm not as up on psycholinguistic work as I'd like to be). I retract my original statement.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 13 Apr 2010 19:09 GMT >In article ><amunn-98C110.19173208042010@62-183-169-81.bb.dnainternet.fi>, > >> In article >> <nsanders-4FE3AB.16544308042010@74.sub-97-136-209.myvzw.com>,
>> > > He has definitely stated that lexicography >> > > has nothing to do with linguistics. [quoted text clipped - 23 lines] >as up on psycholinguistic work as I'd like to be). I retract my >original statement. I probably tend to think that most people determine whether two phonetically homonymous words are "the same" simply by the use of spelling. Thus, the average person would think of the verb "bear" as the same word as "bear" the animal, but "bare" (= naked) would be a different word.
Just try asking anyone who's not a linguist about which of various pairs of homophones they'd call "the same word". You may be surprised at the pattern to the ones that they choose.
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 13 Apr 2010 20:19 GMT > I probably tend to think that most people determine whether two > phonetically homonymous words are "the same" simply by the use of > spelling. Thus, the average person would think of the verb "bear" as > the same word as "bear" the animal, but "bare" (= naked) would be a > different word. And what happens if you ask a non-literate speaker of English?
> Just try asking anyone who's not a linguist about which of various > pairs of homophones they'd call "the same word". You may be surprised > at the pattern to the ones that they choose. I'm pretty confident that, on average, pairs of words with no plausible semantic relationship (1) will regularly be treated as "different words", pairs of words with transparent and/or metaphorical semantic relationships (2) will be treated as "the same word", and pairs of words with plausible, but not trivially transparent, semantic relationships (3) will be mixed, with more opaque relationships being more likely to be treated as "different words".
(1) definite homonyms bank 'financial institution/edge of a river' batter 'baseball hitter/baking mixture' mole 'blemish/burrowing animal'
(2) definite polysemes mouth 'oral opening of an animal/beginning of a river' crawl 'move on all fours/move at a slow pace' see 'observe/understand'
(3) mixed pot 'plant container/marijuana' check 'verify/endanger a king in chess' run 'move quickly/manage'
In fact, this is exactly what seems to be found in psycholinguistic experiments:
"In this study, we use priming in a semantic decision task to investigate the effect of different levels of meaning relatedness on language processing. Both response time and accuracy followed a linear progression through four categories of meaning relatedness. These results suggest that the distinction between a single phonological form with unrelated meanings (homonyms) and a single form with related meanings (polysemes) may be more one of degree than of kind." http://www.colorado.edu/ling/CRIL/Volume21_Issue1/paper_BROWN.pdf
In other words, there is a gradient scale, with true homonyms and true polysemes occupying the endpoints, and everything else fitting in between the two extremes based on the degree of semantic similarity. That is, there are very few true homonyms and true polysemes; most words with multiple meanings could reasonably be classified either way (or neither way), depending on where you arbitrarily decide to draw the categorical lines on the scale.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Adam Funk - 13 Apr 2010 20:56 GMT >> I probably tend to think that most people determine whether two >> phonetically homonymous words are "the same" simply by the use of [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > And what happens if you ask a non-literate speaker of English? In some societies/subgroups, there are very few. Can linguists accept that there are significant groups of people for whom (from some point in childhood onwards) written and spoken language are inextricably intertwined? ;-)
...[homonyms/polysemes]
> (3) mixed > pot 'plant container/marijuana' To make things more confusing, AmE "potted plant" and "pot plant" are both BrE "pot plant". I have managed to avoid getting into any trouble at the garden centre, however.
 Signature The generation of random numbers is too important to be left to chance. [Robert R. Coveyou]
Dan McGrath - 18 May 2010 18:53 GMT >> I probably tend to think that most people determine whether two >> phonetically homonymous words are "the same" simply by the use of [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > >And what happens if you ask a non-literate speaker of English? Some people might say that since they don't know how to spell the words in question, they cannot tell whether they are the same word.
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Adam Funk - 09 Apr 2010 13:45 GMT >> > Well, I'm pretty sure Peter has claimed that linguistics doesn't >> > recognize the distinction between homonymy & polysemy, but I can't >> > find the exact message. > > Fortunately, Peter doesn't speak for linguistics. Good luck telling him that!
>> > He has definitely stated that lexicography >> > has nothing to do with linguistics. [quoted text clipped - 25 lines] > Yes, we all agree on this, I hope! So if there is a synchronic > difference, that can't exactly be the explanation. Those look interesting; thanks.
 Signature Unix is a user-friendly operating system. It's just very choosy about its friends.
Peter T. Daniels - 10 Apr 2010 14:14 GMT > > In article <0k4v87xf8o....@news.ducksburg.com>, > [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > find the exact message. He has definitely stated that lexicography > has nothing to do with linguistics. Stop lying about me.
I believe I have had to caution you about this before.
Adam Funk - 13 Apr 2010 21:02 GMT >> Well, I'm pretty sure Peter has claimed that linguistics doesn't >> recognize the distinction between homonymy & polysemy, but I can't >> find the exact message. He has definitely stated that lexicography >> has nothing to do with linguistics. > > Stop lying about me. In July 2008 you wrote:
Lexicography is not part of linguistics (and lexicographers are rarely linguists).
<d0f635e0-42b9-4339-be46-2c61bab04ec2@m3g2000hsc.googlegroups.com>
> I believe I have had to caution you about this before. I have had to caution you about remarks offensive to various groups. Have you apologized for any of those?
 Signature I don't know what they have to say It makes no difference anyway; Whatever it is, I'm against it! [Prof. Wagstaff]
Peter T. Daniels - 13 Apr 2010 22:44 GMT > >> Well, I'm pretty sure Peter has claimed that linguistics doesn't > >> recognize the distinction between homonymy & polysemy, but I can't [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > Lexicography is not part of linguistics (and lexicographers are > rarely linguists). How do you get from "not part of" to "nothing to do with"?
Where's your cite for "linguistics doesn't recognize the distinction"?
> <d0f635e0-42b9-4339-be46-2c61bab04...@m3g2000hsc.googlegroups.com> > > > I believe I have had to caution you about this before. > > I have had to caution you about remarks offensive to various groups. > Have you apologized for any of those? If I ever make one, I might consider doing so.
Adam Funk - 17 May 2010 11:32 GMT >> >> Well, I'm pretty sure Peter has claimed that linguistics doesn't >> >> recognize the distinction between homonymy & polysemy, but I can't [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > > How do you get from "not part of" to "nothing to do with"? It's not much of a stretch at all when taken with other comments of yours (see below), and it's certainly nothing compared to the exaggerations and fabrications you make in order to insult everyone who disagrees with you.
> Where's your cite for "linguistics doesn't recognize the distinction"? <92f5d107-9d67-4dcb-a403-741376a59f3b@l19g2000vba.googlegroups.com>
PTD: "The lexicon" is a thing in your head, not a dictionary. A distinction between homonymy and polysemy doesn't seem relevant to the lexicon, only to the etymologist.
Nathan Sanders: Whether or not two homophones have one lexical entry or two is certainly relevant to the lexicon! One and two are different numbers.
PTD: Whether they are homophones or polysemes is not!
NS: Whether linguists call them "homophones" or "polysemes" is irrelevant. The fundamental concept of two entries versus one entry is important, regardless of what arbitrary label you apply to them.
PTD: Precisely. The labels are pointless in anything but historical lexicography.
<47ec55e0-623f-4e61-880b-14f810dc462a@l10g2000vba.googlegroups.com>
AF: I'll make this is as clear as possible. Does synchronic description distinguish between homonymy & polysemy? If so, what are the criteria?
PTD: How many times do I have to tell you: the lexicon is not the subject matter of linguistics, and labels for relationships among words are certainly the purview of lexicography, not of linguistics.
<81c9b4a0-92f6-4777-b6f4-0203d96093b1@s20g2000yqh.googlegroups.com>
António Marques: I suppose the only way to do it, then, is to suppose that words with meanings that seem related are polysemes, whereas the othners are homonyms, but you're prone to get false positives in both cases.
AF: I thought this would be a straight question for the proper linguists around here to answer.
PTD: As I've pointed out before (to much incredulity), lingusts and lexicographers have very little to do with each other.
AF: No kidding. Did you notice that I made that distinction?
PTD: Then why did you suppose "proper linguists" would be expected to know the answer to a technical question of lexicography?
 Signature Bob just used 'canonical' in the canonical way. [Guy Steele]
Adam Funk - 21 May 2010 09:43 GMT >> I have had to caution you about remarks offensive to various groups. >> Have you apologized for any of those? > > If I ever make one, I might consider doing so. I've already presented you with a list of the ones I've seen, and you refuse to accept your history of offensive remarks. Your arrogance is astounding. Have you ever apologized to anyone for anything?
 Signature Bob just used 'canonical' in the canonical way. [Guy Steele]
Oliver Cromm - 08 Apr 2010 18:03 GMT * Nathan Sanders:
> I've had no problem with "rare" and "rare" whatsoever. They are two > completely separate words that happen to have the same spelling and > same pronunciation. They are as distinct as "(river) bank" and > "(financial) bank", "(ribbon) bow" and "bow (and arrow)", and > "(ballpoint) pen" and "(pig) pen". I would certainly consider both "bows" as the same word ("something arched"). For the others, the relation is synchronically intransparent. For rare, I can't judge.
 Signature GUGELN, vb., um sich schlagen GRIMM, Deutsches Wörterbuch
Lewis - 09 Apr 2010 10:58 GMT > * Nathan Sanders:
>> I've had no problem with "rare" and "rare" whatsoever. They are two >> completely separate words that happen to have the same spelling and >> same pronunciation. They are as distinct as "(river) bank" and >> "(financial) bank", "(ribbon) bow" and "bow (and arrow)", and >> "(ballpoint) pen" and "(pig) pen".
> I would certainly consider both "bows" as the same word ("something > arched"). For the others, the relation is synchronically intransparent. > For rare, I can't judge. A ribbon bow is TIED, not arched.
 Signature And there were all the stars, looking remarkably like powered diamonds spilled on black velvet, the stars that lured and ultimately called the boldest towards them... --Colour of Magic
Nathan Sanders - 09 Apr 2010 16:11 GMT > > * Nathan Sanders: > [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > > A ribbon bow is TIED, not arched. Indeed. If it is merely arched (e.g., "awareness" ribbons), it's just a ribbon, not a bow.
I think a ribbon has to have at least two arches to count as a bow (I can't come up with any counter-examples), while the archery equipment needs only one (but may have more).
The degree of arching in the two kinds of bows is very different, too. The arches in a ribbon bow usually (always?) must connect, but the archery equipment would be pretty useless if its arches connected!
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Oliver Cromm - 09 Apr 2010 17:41 GMT * Nathan Sanders:
>>> * Nathan Sanders: >> [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > can't come up with any counter-examples), while the archery equipment > needs only one (but may have more). So arched is a necessary condition (though not a sufficient one).
> The degree of arching in the two kinds of bows is very different, too. > The arches in a ribbon bow usually (always?) must connect, but the > archery equipment would be pretty useless if its arches connected! So? I didn't say any of the two words completely describes the object. I vaguely remember something called "arbitrarity of the linguistic sign". But a common core of the two words suggests itself to me (which is not a proof of etymological connection, I'm only talking about my own mental organization).
 Signature GUGEL, f., m., kapuze, mlat. cuculla, cucullus, ahd. cucalun cucullam GRIMM, Deutsches Wörterbuch
Nathan Sanders - 09 Apr 2010 21:18 GMT > * Nathan Sanders: > [quoted text clipped - 20 lines] > > So arched is a necessary condition (though not a sufficient one). Arched is a necessary but not sufficient condition for circles, coils, and domes, too. But I just can't accept any semantics in which circles, coils, domes, bows, and bows all have the identical meanings simply because they are arched.
You and I may be working with fundamentally different understandings of what "meaning" is...
> > The degree of arching in the two kinds of bows is very different, too. > > The arches in a ribbon bow usually (always?) must connect, but the > > archery equipment would be pretty useless if its arches connected! > > So? So, the two words mean different things. In fact, I'd almost go as far as to say that the sets of objects denoted by "bow" and "bow" are disjoint sets, because I'm hard pressed to come up with a non-contrived example of something that is both a bow and a bow.
> I didn't say any of the two words completely describes the object. But the meanings of the words must be sufficiently detailed for speakers to know the difference between them, to know when given combinations of words are semantically licit or not, to know when utterances are ambiguous, and to know what the competing meanings of a particular ambiguous utterance are.
What lexical and semantic theories are you assuming in which "bow" and "bow" are the same word? How does your representation of the lexicon and of meaning not only explain that speakers perceive a difference in ambiguity between (1) and (2), but also that they know what the nature of that ambiguity is?
(1) I tied the string to a bow. (2) I tied the string into a bow.
If the meaning of a word isn't part of its lexical entry, where is that meaning located, and how do speakers know when a single lexical entry is associated (in what way?) with two distinct meanings, and how do they know how to reliably pick the correct meaning in the correct contexts?
(I suppose it's possible that you may see no difference in ambiguity between (1) and (2), neither categorical nor even gradient, but I highly doubt it. However, without running a psycholinguistic experiment on you, I'd just have to take your word for it.)
> I > vaguely remember something called "arbitrarity of the linguistic sign". I don't see the relevance. Arbitrariness is about the relative lack of iconicity in language (i.e., why it's possible for "dog" to not sound like an actual dog, why "big" can be a shorter word than "short", why "palindrome" needn't be one, etc.). It doesn't say anything about homonyms, other than that they are possible (which I'm not disputing).
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Oliver Cromm - 09 Apr 2010 22:08 GMT * Nathan Sanders:
>> * Nathan Sanders: >> [quoted text clipped - 25 lines] > circles, coils, domes, bows, and bows all have the identical meanings > simply because they are arched.
> You and I may be working with fundamentally different understandings > of what "meaning" is... I didn't say that every arched object would be named "bow". I suspect that English uses the same word for bow ("Bogen" in my native German) and bow ("Schleife") because of certain similarities in their shape. That doesn't yet answer the question of what other objects are included or not in the set of bows, just that "bow" represents a container big enough for those two (and a few more, like a violin bow or the bow of a key - and, in a sense, a rainbow).
I'm surprised that you seem to expect compact definitions. I mean compact in a vaguely mathematical sense, because you hypothesize that if my set of "bows" contains archery bows and ribbon bows, it must also include certain other objects, where I wouldn't assume the same. In my view, which objects exactly are included or not depends on a lot of historical contingency, and the set as a whole can be quite contorted in the multi-dimensional space of meanings. Probably even disjoint, as long as certain proximity conditions hold.
>>> The degree of arching in the two kinds of bows is very different, too. >>> The arches in a ribbon bow usually (always?) must connect, but the [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > disjoint sets, because I'm hard pressed to come up with a > non-contrived example of something that is both a bow and a bow. Of course they are disjoint sets, just as door keys and cryptographic keys, or animal legs and table legs. Nevertheless, I have no doubt that these constitute "the same word" (I have a little more pain with "legs of a route"). That there is overlap is not at all necessary for me to subsume two things as "the same core meaning", especially in the realm of metaphor - which is all over the place. With your strict definition, I guess I could come up with several "completely different" meanings for pretty much every word there is. As can often be seen from the fact that pretty much every word has several non-interchangeable counterparts when you translate in a language sufficiently different. I explain that by saying different languages carve the space of meanings up in different places, rather than that there are actually millions of distinct meanings underneath.
I meed a little more time to answer the other part of your post.
 Signature das beten vermöge niemant dann die grawen gugler EBERLIN V. GÜNZBURG GRIMM, Deutsches Wörterbuch
Brian M. Scott - 09 Apr 2010 21:51 GMT On Fri, 09 Apr 2010 11:11:53 -0400, Nathan Sanders <nsanders@williams.edu> wrote in <news:nsanders-F67B48.11115309042010@74.sub-97-136-209.myvzw.com> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
>>> * Nathan Sanders:
>>>> I've had no problem with "rare" and "rare" whatsoever. >>>> They are two completely separate words that happen to >>>> have the same spelling and same pronunciation. They >>>> are as distinct as "(river) bank" and "(financial) >>>> bank", "(ribbon) bow" and "bow (and arrow)", and >>>> "(ballpoint) pen" and "(pig) pen".
>>> I would certainly consider both "bows" as the same word >>> ("something arched"). For the others, the relation is >>> synchronically intransparent. For rare, I can't judge.
>> A ribbon bow is TIED, not arched.
> Indeed. If it is merely arched (e.g., "awareness" ribbons), it's just > a ribbon, not a bow. I can't agree: one meaning of <bow> is 'a bent, curved, or arched object'. An 'awareness' ribbon is a ribbon bent into a (single) bow with the ends crossed. The <bow> of 'bow and arrow' is borderline: it's transparently the same word in origin, but it's developed at least a semi-autonomous existence; if pressed, I'd probably call it the same word, but I'm not happy making a binary choice here.
[...]
Brian
Oliver Cromm - 09 Apr 2010 23:49 GMT * Brian M. Scott:
> On Fri, 09 Apr 2010 11:11:53 -0400, Nathan Sanders > <nsanders@williams.edu> wrote in [quoted text clipped - 26 lines] > existence; if pressed, I'd probably call it the same word, > but I'm not happy making a binary choice here. Interesting, I would have said the ribbon bow is the odd one out, since an archery bow is shaped similar to a rainbow, an elbow, and the bow for certain traditional violin-like instruments, as well as the body when bowing (and, after looking up the dictionary, the bow of a traditional key), where the typical ribbon bow has the additional condition of crossing.
But I might be influenced by my native German.
Btw. what's the relation to a bough?
 Signature ê liezen sich die man schouwen âne gugel vor den frouwen, nu siht mans in den gugeln gân vor den frouwen als ein man, -- TEICHNER
Brian M. Scott - 09 Apr 2010 23:55 GMT On Fri, 9 Apr 2010 18:49:40 -0400, Oliver Cromm <lispamateur@yahoo.de> wrote in <news:1shp0xgpvzwum$.dlg@mid.crommatograph.info> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
[...]
> Btw. what's the relation to a bough? None, at least back to PIE.
Brian
Oliver Cromm - 09 Apr 2010 17:41 GMT * Lewis:
>> * Nathan Sanders: > [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > > A ribbon bow is TIED, not arched. So two straight pieces, tied together in the middle, could count as a bow, but an infinity sign (say, glued in the middle) couldn't?
 Signature GUGELIEREN, vb., schwelgen: dann das ander jar war ein solch gugelieren bei dem guten most J. HEROLT GRIMM, Deutsches Wörterbuch
PaulJK - 10 Apr 2010 04:10 GMT >> * Nathan Sanders: > [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > > A ribbon bow is TIED, not arched. Quite unlike the rainbow. pjk
Dušan Vukotić - 10 Apr 2010 06:24 GMT It seems there is an interesting relation between green and Serbian grana 'branch, twig'. Namely, green is akin to the verb grow and thus it must be a cognate of grove (Russ. роща, Serb. rastinje 'grove, thicket'; from Slavic rasti 'to grow').
Dan McGrath - 07 Apr 2010 16:20 GMT >> I've been wanting to ask you, though: what about "Greenland"? Would >> any of the meanings that "green" has in English be the "right" one in [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] >If they're calquing a calque instead of the original, does it really >matter? At that point, we're so far removed from the original Calquing a calque? Do you think that the English "Greenland" is already a calque?
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 07 Apr 2010 18:24 GMT > >> I've been wanting to ask you, though: what about "Greenland"? Would > >> any of the meanings that "green" has in English be the "right" one in [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > Calquing a calque? Do you think that the English "Greenland" is > already a calque? Yes.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 07 Apr 2010 18:32 GMT >> >> I've been wanting to ask you, though: what about "Greenland"? Would >> >> any of the meanings that "green" has in English be the "right" one in [quoted text clipped - 15 lines] > >Yes. Why?
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 07 Apr 2010 19:19 GMT > >> >> I've been wanting to ask you, though: what about "Greenland"? Would > >> >> any of the meanings that "green" has in English be the "right" one in [quoted text clipped - 17 lines] > > Why? Because "Greenland" is not the original name.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 28 Apr 2010 19:25 GMT >> >> Calquing a calque? Do you think that the English "Greenland" is >> >> already a calque? [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > >Because "Greenland" is not the original name. Does this mean that the English name "Pacific Ocean" is also a calque? The first person to use any form of this name was the Portuguese explorer Ferdinand Magellan. He named the ocean in Latin, as "Mare Pacificum". He may have also sometimes referred to it in his native language ("Mar Pacífico" or whatever).
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 28 Apr 2010 19:46 GMT > >> >> Calquing a calque? Do you think that the English "Greenland" is > >> >> already a calque? [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > > Does this mean that the English name "Pacific Ocean" is also a calque? What else would it be?
I guess it's theoretically possible that English speakers coincidentally happened to came up with "Pacific Ocean" all by themselves, without any influence at all from any other language's name for it.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 11 May 2010 17:37 GMT >> >> >> Calquing a calque? Do you think that the English "Greenland" is >> >> >> already a calque? [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > >What else would it be? A borrowing?
After all, if "Pacific Ocean" is a calque, then what is "Atlantic Ocean"?
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Peter T. Daniels - 11 May 2010 22:16 GMT > On Wed, 28 Apr 2010 14:46:30 -0400, Nathan Sanders > [quoted text clipped - 22 lines] > After all, if "Pacific Ocean" is a calque, then what is "Atlantic > Ocean"? Since thre's no word "atlantic" in English, it's presumably a loanword.
"Calque is a loanword, and loanword is a calque." --Linguistics 101.
Adam Funk - 13 May 2010 17:21 GMT > Since thre's no word "atlantic" in English, it's presumably a > loanword. It's where Atlantis was, isn't it?
> "Calque is a loanword, and loanword is a calque." --Linguistics 101. Yabbut "loanword" is a *correct* calque.
 Signature "Gonzo, is that the contract from the devil?" "No, Kermit, it's worse than that. This is the bill from special effects."
John Atkinson - 14 May 2010 03:54 GMT >> Since thre's no word "atlantic" in English, it's presumably a >> loanword. [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > Yabbut "loanword" is a *correct* calque. Loanword may be have been calqued accurately, but it wasn't *correct* even in the original language. As someone has pointed out somewhere, if you have something on loan you're expected to give it back to the lender eventually. This is not the case for loanwords (some of them do get returned much later, usually rather the worse for wear, but there's no expectation of this.)
John.
Peter T. Daniels - 14 May 2010 13:29 GMT > >> Since thre's no word "atlantic" in English, it's presumably a > >> loanword. [quoted text clipped - 12 lines] > returned much later, usually rather the worse for wear, but there's no > expectation of this.) Well, the loanword is "borrowed" -- maybe the Germans who observed the phenomenon didn't have a word for "share"?
John Atkinson - 14 May 2010 13:51 GMT >>>> Since thre's no word "atlantic" in English, it's presumably a >>>> loanword. [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > > Well, the loanword is "borrowed" Like that book I found on my shelves the other day that I "borrowed" from David Marr forty-seven years ago?
> -- maybe the Germans who observed the > phenomenon didn't have a word for "share"? The Germans have a word for everything -- don't they?
J.
Adam Funk - 14 May 2010 14:17 GMT >>> Loanword may be have been calqued accurately, but it wasn't *correct* >>> even in the original language. As someone has pointed out somewhere, if >>> you have something on loan you're expected to give it back to the lender >>> eventually. This is not the case for loanwords (some of them do get >>> returned much later, usually rather the worse for wear, but there's no >>> expectation of this.) Is there a word for the inverse relation of "share"? I mean (SAT analogy style):
_____ : share :: borrow : loan :: take : give
>> Well, the loanword is "borrowed" > > [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > > > The Germans have a word for everything -- don't they? Yes, because they _____ freely from the Greeks.
 Signature Do you know what they do to book thieves up at Santa Rita? http://www.shigabooks.com/indeces/bookhunter.html
Brian M. Scott - 14 May 2010 18:28 GMT On Fri, 14 May 2010 14:17:59 +0100, Adam Funk <a24061@ducksburg.com> wrote in <news:75vvb7x7mv.ln2@news.ducksburg.com> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
[...]
> Is there a word for the inverse relation of "share"? I > mean (SAT analogy style):
> _____ : share :: borrow : loan :: take : give I assume that you mean:
_____ : share :: borrow : lend :: take : give
'Share' is already reciprocal, so it's not entirely clear to me just what you have in mind; the inverse of 'make available for X's use'?
But I think that what's really wanted is the verb 'appropriate'.
[...]
Brian
Adam Funk - 14 May 2010 19:45 GMT > On Fri, 14 May 2010 14:17:59 +0100, Adam Funk ><a24061@ducksburg.com> wrote in [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > > _____ : share :: borrow : lend :: take : give Yes, oops.
> 'Share' is already reciprocal, so it's not entirely clear to > me just what you have in mind; the inverse of 'make > available for X's use'? > > But I think that what's really wanted is the verb > 'appropriate'. That's roughly the meaning I'm after, although a short Anglo-Saxon verb would of course be best. ;-)
 Signature And remember, while you're out there risking your life and limb through shot and shell, we'll be in be in here thinking what a sucker you are. [Rufus T. Firefly]
Adam Funk - 14 May 2010 21:42 GMT >> 'Share' is already reciprocal, so it's not entirely clear to >> me just what you have in mind; the inverse of 'make [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > That's roughly the meaning I'm after, although a short Anglo-Saxon > verb would of course be best. ;-) Hmm, not exactly. If I appropriate/take something from you, you generally don't still have it. If you share something with me, especially an idea, we both have it.
"He who receives an idea from me receives [it] without lessening [me], as he who lights his [candle] at mine receives light without darkening me." Thomas Jefferson
 Signature I heard that Hans Christian Andersen lifted the title for "The Little Mermaid" off a Red Lobster Menu. [Bucky Katt]
Adam Funk - 14 May 2010 21:37 GMT >> Is there a word for the inverse relation of "share"? I >> mean (SAT analogy style): [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > _____ : share :: borrow : lend :: take : give That is of course what I meant, but from a non-prescriptive point of view, "loan" is a verb too. ;-)
 Signature Mathematiker sind wie Franzosen: Was man ihnen auch sagt, übersetzen sie in ihre eigene Sprache, so daß unverzüglich etwas völlig anderes daraus wird. [Goethe]
Brian M. Scott - 15 May 2010 05:41 GMT On Fri, 14 May 2010 21:37:34 +0100, Adam Funk <a24061@ducksburg.com> wrote in <news:eto0c7x60a.ln2@news.ducksburg.com> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
>>> Is there a word for the inverse relation of "share"? I >>> mean (SAT analogy style):
>>> _____ : share :: borrow : loan :: take : give
>> I assume that you mean:
>> _____ : share :: borrow : lend :: take : give
> That is of course what I meant, but from a > non-prescriptive point of view, "loan" is a verb too. > ;-) True, though I don't myself use it. And in 'borrow : loan' I automatically see 'loan' as a noun for the thing borrowed.
Brian
Nick - 23 May 2010 07:55 GMT >>> Is there a word for the inverse relation of "share"? I >>> mean (SAT analogy style): [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > That is of course what I meant, but from a non-prescriptive point of > view, "loan" is a verb too. ;-) From a non-prescriptive pov, "will you borrow me that book" was common when I was growing up. And it didn't mean "will get get from someone else for me".
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Oliver Cromm - 18 May 2010 23:30 GMT * Peter T. Daniels:
>>>> "Calque is a loanword, and loanword is a calque." --Linguistics 101. >> [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] >> returned much later, usually rather the worse for wear, but there's no >> expectation of this.) In German, it's more precisely a fief-word - though "lehn" and "leihen" ("lend") are related. Maybe the idea is that even though the borrower uses it, it still belongs to the original owner. Being a fief, while in theory you may be required to return it, usually you continue using it and your children after you.
> Well, the loanword is "borrowed" -- maybe the Germans who observed the > phenomenon didn't have a word for "share"? Oy!
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Dan McGrath - 13 May 2010 18:14 GMT >> On Wed, 28 Apr 2010 14:46:30 -0400, Nathan Sanders >> >> <nsand...@williams.edu> wrote: >> >In article <uaugt5125s5h2o3q6a5o520rktu68nr...@4ax.com>,
>> >> Does this mean that the English name "Pacific Ocean" is also a calque? >> [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] >Since thre's no word "atlantic" in English, it's presumably a >loanword. Which was my point exactly.
I was trying to ask Nathan why the word "Pacific", as in "Pacific Ocean", cannot be a loanword rather than a calque. "Atlantic", a clearer example of a loanword, derives from the Latin "Atlanticum" (or something like that). "Pacificum" could have easily been anglicized to "Pacific" in the same way, thus having evolved independently from the generic adjective "pacific".
Now, if the English speakers decided to turn "Mare Pacificum" into "Peaceful Ocean" instead, *that* would be an obvious calque.
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 13 May 2010 19:30 GMT > >> On Wed, 28 Apr 2010 14:46:30 -0400, Nathan Sanders > >> [quoted text clipped - 24 lines] > Now, if the English speakers decided to turn "Mare Pacificum" into > "Peaceful Ocean" instead, *that* would be an obvious calque. If it's not a calque, then the entire previous discussion about it can still be applied to anything else that is a calque, mutatis mutandis.
If it's not a calque, then the entire previous discussion about it can still be applied to it, as is.
In both cases, the entire previous discussion can still be applied to some calque, so why does it matter whether this particular phrase is in fact an actual calque?
I don't think we can definitively tell one way or the other, and it's significantly easier to just assume it is a calque for the sake of the previous discussion, than to have to mentally rewrite every post for the past few years, replacing "pacific" and "ocean" with other words.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Adam Funk - 07 Apr 2010 20:16 GMT >>> I've been wanting to ask you, though: what about "Greenland"? Would >>> any of the meanings that "green" has in English be the "right" one in [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > Calquing a calque? Do you think that the English "Greenland" is > already a calque? Isn't "Greenland" calqued from the Old Norse "Groenland" (or something approximately like that)?
 Signature Mathematiker sind wie Franzosen: Was man ihnen auch sagt, übersetzen sie in ihre eigene Sprache, so daß unverzüglich etwas völlig anderes daraus wird. [Goethe]
Nathan Sanders - 07 Apr 2010 22:01 GMT > >>> I've been wanting to ask you, though: what about "Greenland"? Would > >>> any of the meanings that "green" has in English be the "right" one in [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > Isn't "Greenland" calqued from the Old Norse "Groenland" (or something > approximately like that)? That's my understanding. Or maybe English speakers came up with "Greenland" all by themselves, with no knowledge of the Scandinavian names for the island, and the apparent calque is really just pure happenstance, the result of a big cosmic coincidence.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
PaulJK - 08 Apr 2010 05:45 GMT >>>>> I've been wanting to ask you, though: what about "Greenland"? Would >>>>> any of the meanings that "green" has in English be the "right" one in [quoted text clipped - 21 lines] > names for the island, and the apparent calque is really just pure > happenstance, the result of a big cosmic coincidence. To invent the name of Greenland from scratch would indeed be a really big cosmic coincidence.
AFAIK, for centuries the European maps depicting larger areas than just the geography of their own countries were often (usually?) annotated in Latin. This had many advantages. All educated Europeans were expected to be able to read Latin names and since Latin wasn't a native language of any nation nobody were to be insulted.
I have several copies of medieval maps of world displayed on the walls of my house. For example, the map titled "EVROPA recens defcripta Guiliemo Blaeuw" annotates Greenland as "Groenland Iæ Pars".
My bet is that the English "Greenland" is a calque of Latin "Groenland". I assume that the Latin name was a borrowing of the Scandinavian "Groenland". :-)
By the way, the map shows "Mare Balticvm" splitting into "Boddicus sinus" to the north and "Finnieus finus" towards the east. :-)
pjk
P.S. Two different esses in <sinus> and <finus> isn't my spelling mistake.
Ruud Harmsen - 08 Apr 2010 06:26 GMT Thu, 8 Apr 2010 16:45:48 +1200: "PaulJK" <paul.kriha@paradise.net.nz>: in sci.lang:
>I have several copies of medieval maps of world displayed >on the walls of my house. For example, the map titled [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] >My bet is that the English "Greenland" is a calque of Latin >"Groenland". Latin, or Dutch? Guiliemo Blaeuw = Willem Blaeu, and he was Dutch: http://nl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Willem_Blaeu
 Signature Ruud Harmsen, http://rudhar.com
PaulJK - 08 Apr 2010 12:40 GMT > Thu, 8 Apr 2010 16:45:48 +1200: "PaulJK" <paul.kriha@paradise.net.nz>: > in sci.lang: [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > Latin, or Dutch? Guiliemo Blaeuw = Willem Blaeu, and he was Dutch: > http://nl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Willem_Blaeu Yes, I knew that. Most of my maps with Latin annotations are all in Latin. But now I've had a closer look at the one by Blaeuw and I see that it is mostly in Latin with a few names in different languages.
I presume "Oceanvs Occidentalis" is in Latin just like the majority of annotations. However, there is "Noort Zee" which I take is Dutch and "Myrmanskoy more" seems to be a slightly misspelled Russian name.
So you're right, Ruud, I can't say for sure which language it's in, it could just as well be Dutch.
BTW, the 1680 map by Gerard Valck calls it "Groenlandia".
pjk
Adam Funk - 08 Apr 2010 13:08 GMT >>> Isn't "Greenland" calqued from the Old Norse "Groenland" (or something >>> approximately like that)? [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > To invent the name of Greenland from scratch would > indeed be a really big cosmic coincidence. Yes, it sounds farfetched to me too.
> AFAIK, for centuries the European maps depicting larger > areas than just the geography of their own countries were [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > "EVROPA recens defcripta Guiliemo Blaeuw" annotates > Greenland as "Groenland Iæ Pars". What's his translation of "here be dragons"? ;-)
 Signature The generation of random numbers is too important to be left to chance. [Robert R. Coveyou]
PaulJK - 09 Apr 2010 07:15 GMT >>>> Isn't "Greenland" calqued from the Old Norse "Groenland" (or something >>>> approximately like that)? [quoted text clipped - 23 lines] > What's his translation of "here be dragons"? > ;-) He draws iconic pictures but he doesn't do dragons. East of Marocho in Africa is Barbaria with roaming lions and the empty northeast of Russia is full of bears.
pjk
Lewis - 09 Apr 2010 10:43 GMT > By the way, the map shows "Mare Balticvm" splitting > into "Boddicus sinus" to the north and "Finnieus finus" > towards the east. :-) Troublemaker!
 Signature Good old Dame Fortune. You can _depend_ on her. --The Truth
PaulJK - 10 Apr 2010 04:07 GMT >> By the way, the map shows "Mare Balticvm" splitting >> into "Boddicus sinus" to the north and "Finnieus finus" >> towards the east. :-) > > Troublemaker! I claim that to be an exception confirming the rule. :-)
pjk
Dan McGrath - 08 Apr 2010 18:48 GMT >>>> I've been wanting to ask you, though: what about "Greenland"? Would >>>> any of the meanings that "green" has in English be the "right" one in [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] >Isn't "Greenland" calqued from the Old Norse "Groenland" (or something >approximately like that)? I guess my understanding was that it was simply *borrowed* from Scandinavian. Of course, with words like these that are obvious cognates of the original term, it's hard to tell whether they were borrowed or calqued.
However, it is clear that in most European languages, the name for Greenland is definitely a borrowing, not a calque.
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Adam Funk - 08 Apr 2010 21:22 GMT >>Isn't "Greenland" calqued from the Old Norse "Groenland" (or something >>approximately like that)? [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > cognates of the original term, it's hard to tell whether they were > borrowed or calqued. I'm not sure how the Old Norse name was pronounced, but (it's Grønland in modern Danish and Norwegian) I suspect that a borrowing into English would not match the colour "Green".
> However, it is clear that in most European languages, the name for > Greenland is definitely a borrowing, not a calque. French "Groenland" and German "Grönland" (the calque would be "Grünland"): yes.
 Signature hmmmm: sounds like the same DLL hell problem my cousin had. try deleting all DLLs in your Windows/system32 directory and see what happens. (Bryce Utting)
Christian Weisgerber - 08 Apr 2010 23:35 GMT > > I guess my understanding was that it was simply *borrowed* from > > Scandinavian. Of course, with words like these that are obvious [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > in modern Danish and Norwegian) I suspect that a borrowing into > English would not match the colour "Green". If Old Norse had a rounded front vowel there, it would have to be (1) unrounded or (2) become a back vowel in English. In case of (1), you end up with "green"--which in fact reflects the development of "green" in English itself.
Hmm, parts of Wikipedia claim the Old Norse name was "Grænland". I don't know how to verify this.
 Signature Christian "naddy" Weisgerber naddy@mips.inka.de
Adam Funk - 09 Apr 2010 20:24 GMT >> > I guess my understanding was that it was simply *borrowed* from >> > Scandinavian. Of course, with words like these that are obvious [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > (1), you end up with "green"--which in fact reflects the development > of "green" in English itself. I guess it would depend on when Gr...land was borrowed/calqued into English?
> Hmm, parts of Wikipedia claim the Old Norse name was "Grænland". > I don't know how to verify this. It is "Grönland" in modern German, right? Why isn't it "Grünland"? ;-)
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Brian M. Scott - 09 Apr 2010 22:38 GMT On Fri, 09 Apr 2010 20:24:09 +0100, Adam Funk <a24061@ducksburg.com> wrote in <news:pfb497xbbu.ln2@news.ducksburg.com> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
>>>> I guess my understanding was that it was simply >>>> *borrowed* from Scandinavian. Of course, with words >>>> like these that are obvious cognates of the original >>>> term, it's hard to tell whether they were borrowed or >>>> calqued.
>>> I'm not sure how the Old Norse name was pronounced, but >>> (it's Grønland in modern Danish and Norwegian) I >>> suspect that a borrowing into English would not match >>> the colour "Green".
>> If Old Norse had a rounded front vowel there, it would >> have to be (1) unrounded or (2) become a back vowel in >> English. In case of (1), you end up with "green"--which >> in fact reflects the development of "green" in English >> itself. ON <grœnn> 'green' had a front rounded vowel, [ø:], resulting from front umlaut of *o:. By the late 13th century this had unrounded and merged with <æ> ([æ:]), which eventually became [ai:].
> I guess it would depend on when Gr...land was > borrowed/calqued into English? The OED has a 1678 citation for <Greenland-Dove>; the place-name by itself isn't included but must be at least as old. On the other hand, I doubt that it's an old borrowing; it seems much likelier to be a calque.
>> Hmm, parts of Wikipedia claim the Old Norse name was >> "Grænland". I don't know how to verify this. That's the modern Icelandic spelling, which is found in at least some mss. of Landnámabók. The normalized ON spelling, also found in some mss., is <Grœnland>, from <grœnn> 'green' (< PGmc. *gro:nja-) and <land> 'land'. Landnámabók says:
Þat sumar fór Eiríkr at byggja land þat, er hann hafði fundit ok hann kallaði Grœnland, því at hann lét þat menn mjök mundu fýsa þangat, ef landit héti vel. That summer Eirík went to settle the land that he had found, and he called it Greenland, because he reckoned that people would be very eager to go there if the land had a good name.
[...]
Brian
Christian Weisgerber - 09 Apr 2010 22:44 GMT > > Hmm, parts of Wikipedia claim the Old Norse name was "Grænland". > > I don't know how to verify this. > > It is "Grönland" in modern German, right? Yes. I assume this is a borrowing from Danish.
French has "Groenland", /grOEnlA~d/, with a diphthong!
 Signature Christian "naddy" Weisgerber naddy@mips.inka.de
Adam Funk - 10 Apr 2010 19:58 GMT >> > Hmm, parts of Wikipedia claim the Old Norse name was "Grænland". >> > I don't know how to verify this. [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > French has "Groenland", /grOEnlA~d/, with a diphthong! Shouldn't that be "Groënland" if it's a diphthong? (I can't recall ever discussing the place in French.)
 Signature I spend almost as much time figuring out what's wrong with my computer as I do actually using it. Networked software, especially, requires frequent updates and maintenance, all of which gets in the way of doing routine work. (Stoll 1995)
Christian Weisgerber - 10 Apr 2010 22:05 GMT > > French has "Groenland", /grOEnlA~d/, with a diphthong! > > Shouldn't that be "Groënland" if it's a diphthong? (I can't recall > ever discussing the place in French.) I would have thought so, too, but apparently not. Wikipedia-FR says the name was indeed spelled with a trema until 1850.
However, their article on orthographic reforms only mentions any in 1835 and 1878, coinciding with the sixth and seventh editions of the Academy's Dictionary. ... If you look at the online reproduction of the seventh edition, it doesn't have any entry for the island.
Google finds plenty of contemporary references for "Groënland".
Grevisse simply writes "Groenland" and only comments on the pronunciation and the fact that it is masculine, contrary to most islands.
 Signature Christian "naddy" Weisgerber naddy@mips.inka.de
Peter Moylan - 11 Apr 2010 06:37 GMT > Grevisse simply writes "Groenland" and only comments on the > pronunciation and the fact that it is masculine, contrary to most > islands. No. Man is an island.
 Signature Peter Moylan, Newcastle, NSW, Australia. http://www.pmoylan.org For an e-mail address, see my web page.
Mark Brader - 11 Apr 2010 10:26 GMT Christian Weisgerber:
> > ...and the fact that it is masculine, contrary to most islands. Peter Moylan:
> No. Man is an island. No. Canaries are islands.
 Signature Mark Brader, | "There is no silver bullet, because not every Toronto, msb@vex.net | problem is a werewolf." -- Damian Conway
Odysseus - 11 Apr 2010 22:53 GMT > > Grevisse simply writes "Groenland" and only comments on the > > pronunciation and the fact that it is masculine, contrary to most > > islands. > > > No. Man is an island. I thought it was an isle.
 Signature Odysseus
R H Draney - 12 Apr 2010 02:53 GMT Odysseus filted:
>> > Grevisse simply writes "Groenland" and only comments on the >> > pronunciation and the fact that it is masculine, contrary to most [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > >I thought it was an isle. The landmass Gilligan found himself on was both, depending on whether you believe the show's title or the lyric of the theme song....r
 Signature "Oy! A cat made of lead cannot fly." - Mark Brader declaims a basic scientific principle
Peter T. Daniels - 12 Apr 2010 05:03 GMT > Odysseus filted: > [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > The landmass Gilligan found himself on was both, depending on whether you > believe the show's title or the lyric of the theme song....r Rather, which line of the lyric.
Jim Heckman - 11 Apr 2010 10:48 GMT On 9-Apr-2010, naddy@mips.inka.de (Christian Weisgerber) wrote in message <hpo74m$1aee$1@lorvorc.mips.inka.de>:
> > > Hmm, parts of Wikipedia claim the Old Norse name was "Grænland". > > > I don't know how to verify this. [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > French has "Groenland", /grOEnlA~d/, with a diphthong! Why do you call that a diphthong and not just a sequence of vowels? I wonder how many a syllables a native French speaker would say it has?
 Signature Jim Heckman
PaulJK - 10 Apr 2010 04:04 GMT >>>>> I've been wanting to ask you, though: what about "Greenland"? Would >>>>> any of the meanings that "green" has in English be the "right" one in [quoted text clipped - 24 lines] > However, it is clear that in most European languages, the name for > Greenland is definitely a borrowing, not a calque. You could be right about "most" European languages, certainly many of them have boorowed and assimilated it in various ways.
For example, in Czech it's "Grónsko" which is an obvious borrowing from German "Grönland" with umlaut replaced by vowel length and "-land" replaced by Slavic morphology for country/neuter/single/nominative. Any relationship with green colour is completely lost.
pjk
Joachim Pense - 10 Apr 2010 09:16 GMT Am 08.04.2010 19:50, schrieb Dan McGrath:
>> Isn't "Greenland" calqued from the Old Norse "Groenland" (or something >> approximately like that)? [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > However, it is clear that in most European languages, the name for > Greenland is definitely a borrowing, not a calque. Question: Why did the Germans borrow ( > Grönland) and not calque ( > *Grünland)? Maybe at the time of the loan the idea of Grönland being green appeared absurd?
Joachim
Dan McGrath - 11 May 2010 17:37 GMT >Am 08.04.2010 19:50, schrieb Dan McGrath: > [quoted text clipped - 12 lines] >( > *Grünland)? Maybe at the time of the loan the idea of Grönland being >green appeared absurd? By that logic, shouldn't we expect misnomers *never* to be calqued?
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Dan McGrath - 18 Mar 2010 18:46 GMT >> >> "Rare steak" is two lexemes, "Pacific Ocean" is only one. This is >> >> what I had been assuming you were referring to when you wrote about [quoted text clipped - 25 lines] >need to be memorized, because the compositional meaning gives you the >correct interpretation For phrases of this first type, you wouldn't call translations of them "calques", would you? (I think you may have said something in 2008 that suggested otherwise.)
>(2) phrases like "Östersjön" in Swedish, which identify specific >objects in the set of things described by the compositional [quoted text clipped - 12 lines] >you follow the compositional meaning, you couldn't guess the correct >objects being referred to I don't exactly see how the difference between phrases of types (2) and (3) should have any relevance to our discussion.
>> Look, here's what you had written last month: >> [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] >it's compositional for me; if you use "my car" to refer to my car >rather than yours, it is clearly not compositional for you! So, does this make the creation of "Itämeri" (the Finnish version of "Östersjön") a "mistake" in the same sense that calques of phrases of type (3) are mistakes?
Your paragraph above on "relative terms" reminded me of a strange thing that I noticed many years ago when I first got a book called _Manual of Cryptography_ by General Luigi Sacco. The book was originally published in Italian ("Manuale di Crittografia"). In the chapter concerning the frequency data for various languages, there is one point where the translator uses the phrase "our language" where the context indicates quite clearly that it is a reference to the Italian language. Now, a reference to Italian as "nostra lingua" would make sense to an Italian speaker, but certainly not "our language" for an English speaker! I thought that this was a "bad" (overly literal) translation and that the translator simply did not think it out carefully enough. I showed the phrase in the book to a friend back at that time, and she agreed with my feelings about it. What I want to know is, how do *you* feel about it? Is it a "mistake"? Is it a "serious" mistake (unlike the calquing of phrases of the "guinea pig" type)? At any rate, it seems clear that while "nostra lingua", or whatever phrase appeared in the original Italian text, was compositional, the English rendering "our language" is non-compositional.
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 18 Mar 2010 20:57 GMT > >> >> "Rare steak" is two lexemes, "Pacific Ocean" is only one. This is > >> >> what I had been assuming you were referring to when you wrote about [quoted text clipped - 29 lines] > "calques", would you? (I think you may have said something in 2008 > that suggested otherwise.) Correct. It is not a calque, because "rare steak" isn't a fixed phrase. It's a perfectly productive combination of two ordinary words, and the meaning of the phrase is identical to the transparent, productive combination of the meaning of the parts. That's what compositional means.
> >(2) phrases like "Östersjön" in Swedish, which identify specific > >objects in the set of things described by the compositional [quoted text clipped - 15 lines] > I don't exactly see how the difference between phrases of types (2) > and (3) should have any relevance to our discussion. I'm not sure I can explain it any more carefully than I already have. If you don't understand the differences I've described above, then you're probably just going to continue asking me how I feel about phrase after phrase. But my answer to all of them has already been summarized in (1)-(3). The differences (i) between compositionality and non-compositionality and (ii) between equality and proper subsets, are both important for understand the nature of translating polymorphemic expressions.
Phrases of type (1) are purely compositional, with identity between the meaning of the overall phrase and the compositional meaning.
Phrases of type (2) are partly compositional, with the meaning of the overall phrase being a proper subset of the compositional meaning.
Phrases of type (3) are purely non-compositional, with no overlap at all between the meaning of the overall phrase and the compositional meaning.
(I don't think it's possible to have an inverse of (2), where the meaning of the overall phrase is a proper *superset* of the compositional meaning. I'm happy to be corrected.)
Before you ask me what I think about some translation of a phrase, figure out which of those three categories it fits into. Then go back to whatever it is I have already said about other phrases in that category, and you've got your answer! No need to ask me. No need for me to write out the same thing in a different way.
> >> Look, here's what you had written last month: > >> [quoted text clipped - 17 lines] > "Östersjön") a "mistake" in the same sense that calques of phrases of > type (3) are mistakes? Exactly the same? No. Neither "guinea" nor "pig" contribute direct information that overlaps with the meaning of the entire phrase. However, both "öster" and "sjön" do contribute such information, which is why (2) and (3) are different.
Note of course that "öster" only directly contributes if you also happen to know the physical location of the speakers of the source language. But unlike with (1), even if you know all of this information, the meaning of "Östersjön" still does not correspond exactly to the compositional meaning of its parts; it's only a subset.
> Your paragraph above on "relative terms" reminded me of a strange > thing that I noticed many years ago when I first got a book called [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > friend back at that time, and she agreed with my feelings about it. > What I want to know is, how do *you* feel about it? There is no perfect translation. A translation that is too literal runs into problems just like the one you noticed. A translation that is too loose overwrites the original author's voice with too much of the translator's voice. Neither one is inherently more right or wrong than the other, since the path you take depends on what the goal of the translation is. Is it supposed to be accurate, or accessible? Accuracy is more desired in an academic work, while accessibility would be more desirable in a popular work. PIcking something in the middle runs the risk of inheriting the problems of both extremes.
Higher accuracy will likely make more use of footnotes and side commentary to explain overly literal expressions that don't make sense in the target language and culture, while higher accessibility will allow the translator to take more liberties so that the reader will have an uninterrupted reading experience. Either way, the translator needs a solid understanding of both the source and the target languages and cultures to do a good job, and the reader may very well need at least a partial understanding of the source language and culture to completely understand the work.
This goes well beyond language. Rituals, customs, social norms, symbols, allusions, cultural history, religion, politics, geography... all of these factors play a role in translation, affecting not just individual words and phrases, but entire passages and scenes, or even the personalities of the characters!
For example, physical behavior that may be politely standard in one culture could be bizarre or even exceedingly rude in another, or certain occupations may be more revered in one culture than another. The translator has to figure out how to translate these concepts given the target audience. Should the behavior or occupation be translated literally, perhaps with an explanatory footnote? Or should it be translated more liberally (e.g., change "bow" to "shake hands", or "lawyer" to "doctor")? It all depends. There is no single universal right answer.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 23 Mar 2010 16:32 GMT >> Your paragraph above on "relative terms" reminded me of a strange >> thing that I noticed many years ago when I first got a book called [quoted text clipped - 22 lines] > >[...] I don't really see anything wrong with what you refer to as "overwrit[ing] the original author's voice with too much of the translator's voice". Sure, a book that was translated very loosely would perhaps better deserve to be called (say) a "rendition" instead of a "translation", and it might need to be indicated as such on the title page. But there'd be nothing bad about the actual text of the book, any more than there would have been anything bad about Finnish using the words for "North Sea" or "South Sea" to name the (Swedish) "East Sea" that is *west* of Finland. Tell me, do you see any *advantage* to the choice of "East Sea" as the Finnish name (instead of the hypothetical name "North Sea" or "South Sea")?
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Peter T. Daniels - 18 Mar 2010 23:27 GMT > Your paragraph above on "relative terms" reminded me of a strange > thing that I noticed many years ago when I first got a book called [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > What I want to know is, how do *you* feel about it? Is it a > "mistake"? It is a poor translation. It did not accurately convey the content of the original work. The translator should simply have written "in the Italian language" instead of "in our language."
(I write as a fairly frequently published translator.)
Oliver Cromm - 26 Mar 2010 22:22 GMT * Peter T. Daniels:
>> Your paragraph above on "relative terms" reminded me of a strange >> thing that I noticed many years ago when I first got a book called [quoted text clipped - 17 lines] > > (I write as a fairly frequently published translator.) And yet you made a rookie mistake in not asking for more context. It depends on something close to the subject of this discussion.
If the phrase was: "In our language, we would understand every word of that conversation", then the literal translation is probably exactly what is wanted, even though the author thought of Italian when writing it.
If the phrase was: "In our language, i is the most frequent letter", then the literal translation is utter nonsense.
Many other cases are somewhere in between.
 Signature es sol kain leitgeb eim paurnknecht nicht mer parigen dann sein gurtelgewant, ... swert und gugel wert ist österr. weist.
Adam Funk - 26 Mar 2010 22:47 GMT > * Peter T. Daniels:
>> It is a poor translation. It did not accurately convey the content of >> the original work. The translator should simply have written "in the [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > what is wanted, even though the author thought of Italian when writing > it. Even so, a clarifying footnote wouldn't hurt.
> If the phrase was: "In our language, i is the most frequent letter", > then the literal translation is utter nonsense. Hmm. In a translation of a non-literary work, you could say that but put a translator's footnote on "our language" to explain it.
> Many other cases are somewhere in between. You can solve them all with footnotes! (AIUI, it's the translation of literature that really poses problems.)
 Signature "Mrs CJ and I avoid clichés like the plague."
Dan McGrath - 28 Apr 2010 17:32 GMT >> * Peter T. Daniels: > [quoted text clipped - 24 lines] >You can solve them all with footnotes! (AIUI, it's the translation of >literature that really poses problems.) What's wrong with simply rendering "nostra lingua" as "the Italian language", with no footnote at all? Why do so many people think a translation must be accurate?
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
franzi - 28 Apr 2010 22:31 GMT >>> * Peter T. Daniels: >> [quoted text clipped - 28 lines] > language", with no footnote at all? Why do so many people think a > translation must be accurate? I don't know that 'so many' people do. How many is 'so many'?
People generally think that a translation should fit its purpose. Sometimes the purpose is to render exactly, in a target language, the sense of the original. Sometimes the purpose is to provide a useful paraphrase that can be understood straight away by a speaker of the target language. If the circumstances demanded the first purpose - for example, an enquiry into what the original text actually said - then to offer "the Italian language" as a translation of "nostra lingua" would be a great mistake.
 Signature franzi
Esploranto Doktoro - 29 Apr 2010 00:39 GMT On Apr 28, 6:31 pm, franzi <et.in.arcadia.fra...@googlemail.com> wrote:
> >>> * Peter T. Daniels: > [quoted text clipped - 41 lines] > -- > franzi I think when languages are related they tend to "translate" the term in the measure that is possible, this would account for Greenland. Being related the Old Norse and English is common to translate the "Groen-" part, maybe, as Scandinaveans had contact with Old English people the name could be very old and be taken at an older stage. By the way, in Spanish the name is spelled "Groenlandia" and pronounced exactly as it would be French "Groën-". Also it reminds me of the Mediterranean Sea, in Spanish the name turns into "Mar Mediterráneo" being the "terráneo" translated into Spanish, so any speaker of the language understands that is a Sea of the Middle of the Earth. As in English anyone can understand that is a Green Land XD even though the name was used as propaganda.
pCarsten - 29 Apr 2010 07:13 GMT > As in English anyone can understand that is a Green Land > XD even though the name was used as propaganda. No, they called it Green Land because it was green. Look at a map. The southern tip of Greenland is on level with Scotland and the southern part of Norway, and much farther south that any part of Iceland. Even today, there are sheep farms along the southern coast.
James Hogg - 29 Apr 2010 07:36 GMT >> As in English anyone can understand that is a Green Land XD even >> though the name was used as propaganda. [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > southern part of Norway, and much farther south that any part of > Iceland. Even today, there are sheep farms along the southern coast. Grænlendinga Saga:
"He [Eirik the Red] named the country he had discovered Greenland, for he said that people would be much more tempted to go there if it had an attractive name."
 Signature James
pCarsten - 29 Apr 2010 17:11 GMT James Hogg skrev:
>>> As in English anyone can understand that is a Green Land XD even >>> though the name was used as propaganda. [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > he said that people would be much more tempted to go there if it had an > attractive name." That saga is about as historically accurate as is the bible.
James Hogg - 29 Apr 2010 21:31 GMT > James Hogg skrev: >>>> As in English anyone can understand that is a Green Land XD even [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > > That saga is about as historically accurate as is the bible. It shows that the idea that the name was intended as good advertising goes back at least to the thirteenth century.
 Signature James
Peter Moylan - 29 Apr 2010 23:59 GMT >> James Hogg skrev: >>>>> As in English anyone can understand that is a Green Land XD even [quoted text clipped - 14 lines] > It shows that the idea that the name was intended as good advertising > goes back at least to the thirteenth century. I finally got around to checking the satellite view. There are some green bits around the edges, and sailors would see only the edges.
On the whole, though, it's undeniable that Iceland has more green and that Greenland has more ice.
 Signature Peter Moylan, Newcastle, NSW, Australia. http://www.pmoylan.org For an e-mail address, see my web page.
Hans Aberg - 30 Apr 2010 09:59 GMT >>>>>> As in English anyone can understand that is a Green Land XD even >>>>>> though the name was used as propaganda. [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > I finally got around to checking the satellite view. There are some > green bits around the edges, and sailors would see only the edges. The climate was warmer when the Vikings first settled there. I recall one theory is that settlements were abandoned when the climate was getting colder. The Vikings had a certain living style, and would move on when an area could not support it. Something similar might have happened with the settlements in North America, though another factor might have been competition with the natives.
Hans
Adam Funk - 30 Apr 2010 21:45 GMT > The climate was warmer when the Vikings first settled there. I recall > one theory is that settlements were abandoned when the climate was > getting colder. The Vikings had a certain living style, and would move > on when an area could not support it. Something similar might have > happened with the settlements in North America, though another factor > might have been competition with the natives. I saw an interesting documentary a few years ago about this. As I recall, the archaeologists' and historians' conclusion was that the Vikings in Greenland didn't learn from the natives and adapt, so when the climate got significantly colder in C.13 (I think) so they couldn't continue to survive from sheep-farming, they starved. Towards the end, they got desperate enought to eat their hunting dogs.
 Signature Taken on the whole however this is a fine disc and a good example of the current pop scene attempting to break out of its vulgarisms and sometimes downright obscene derivative hogwash. (Julian Stone-Mason B.A., 1972)
Hans Aberg - 30 Apr 2010 22:15 GMT >> The climate was warmer when the Vikings first settled there. I recall >> one theory is that settlements were abandoned when the climate was >> getting colder. The Vikings had a certain living style, and would move >> on when an area could not support it. Something similar might have >> happened with the settlements in North America, though another factor >> might have been competition with the natives.
> I saw an interesting documentary a few years ago about this. As I > recall, the archaeologists' and historians' conclusion was that the > Vikings in Greenland didn't learn from the natives and adapt, so when > the climate got significantly colder in C.13 (I think) so they > couldn't continue to survive from sheep-farming, they starved. > Towards the end, they got desperate enought to eat their hunting dogs. The natives were lactose intolerant. So one story was that the Vikings gave the natives some of their food, including dairy produce, in friendship, but the latter came back very angry the day after. Sheep milk is however low in lactose content.
The were two peoples living in Sweden during the stone age (like on Gotland) - farmers towards the inland and fishers/hunters towards the sea. Genetic testing has shown that the latter were lactose intolerant. So that this people, that latter vanished in history, did do that by mixing with the farmers.
The situation with the Vikings might have been similar.
The climate was warmer in earlier times in Scandinavia, too, one produced wine. So the Vikings giving North America the name Vinland (Wineland) would have been both attractive, and perhaps appropriate.
Hans
PaulJK - 01 May 2010 07:54 GMT >>> James Hogg skrev: >>>>>> As in English anyone can understand that is a Green Land XD even [quoted text clipped - 20 lines] > On the whole, though, it's undeniable that Iceland has more green and > that Greenland has more ice. Interesting. Where did you get the satellite pics from the 10th century? pjk
Peter Moylan - 02 May 2010 13:55 GMT >>>> James Hogg skrev: >>>>>>> As in English anyone can understand that is a Green Land XD even [quoted text clipped - 20 lines] > Interesting. > Where did you get the satellite pics from the 10th century? You can specify a location in Google Maps by giving a longitude and latitude. (And distance from the centre of the earth? It's a while since I checked off-earth addresses.) The obvious extension to this is to give full space-time coordinates.
 Signature Peter Moylan, Newcastle, NSW, Australia. http://www.pmoylan.org For an e-mail address, see my web page.
PaulJK - 03 May 2010 13:18 GMT >>>>> James Hogg skrev: >>>>>>>> As in English anyone can understand that is a Green Land XD even [quoted text clipped - 25 lines] > I checked off-earth addresses.) The obvious extension to this is to give > full space-time coordinates. It must cost you a little fortune every time you hire Tardis. I am told, the hourly rates are pretty steep. pjk
James Hogg - 03 May 2010 13:30 GMT >>>>>> James Hogg skrev: >>>>>>>>> As in English anyone can understand that is a Green Land XD even [quoted text clipped - 25 lines] > It must cost you a little fortune every time you hire Tardis. > I am told, the hourly rates are pretty steep. What if you bring it back before you hire it?
 Signature James
PaulJK - 03 May 2010 13:39 GMT [...]
>>>>> On the whole, though, it's undeniable that Iceland has more green and >>>>> that Greenland has more ice. [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > > What if you bring it back before you hire it? That could be a bit risky. If not careful, you could end up in an infinite time-loop forced to keep paying till the end of time. pjk
Adam Funk - 03 May 2010 19:48 GMT >>> It must cost you a little fortune every time you hire Tardis. >>> I am told, the hourly rates are pretty steep. [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > That could be a bit risky. If not careful, you could end up > in an infinite time-loop forced to keep paying till the end of time. ...accompanied by meatloaf.
 Signature I spend almost as much time figuring out what's wrong with my computer as I do actually using it. Networked software, especially, requires frequent updates and maintenance, all of which gets in the way of doing routine work. (Stoll 1995)
Lewis - 03 May 2010 18:33 GMT >>>>>> James Hogg skrev: >>>>>>>>> As in English anyone can understand that is a Green Land XD even [quoted text clipped - 25 lines] >> I checked off-earth addresses.) The obvious extension to this is to give >> full space-time coordinates.
> It must cost you a little fortune every time you hire Tardis. > I am told, the hourly rates are pretty steep. Yes, but when it absolutely, positively has to get there before you sent it you have to use Tardis Express.
 Signature If the #2 pencil is the most popular, why is it still #2?
Adam Funk - 30 Apr 2010 21:39 GMT >> No, they called it Green Land because it was green. Look at a map. >> The southern tip of Greenland is on level with Scotland and the [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > he said that people would be much more tempted to go there if it had an > attractive name." Sadly, the sagas fail to mention the firm of great marketing consultants he'd hired.
 Signature Bob just used 'canonical' in the canonical way. [Guy Steele]
Dan McGrath - 20 Apr 2010 18:56 GMT >> Look, here's what you had written last month: >> [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] >it's compositional for me; if you use "my car" to refer to my car >rather than yours, it is clearly not compositional for you! I give up. What exactly *did* the Finns fail to realize when they coined "Itämeri" on the model of the Swedish "Östersjön"? (You did claim that calques were mistakes, so I guess I am trying to figure out what the mistake was here.)
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 20 Apr 2010 20:39 GMT > >> Look, here's what you had written last month: > >> [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > I give up. What exactly *did* the Finns fail to realize when they > coined "Itämeri" on the model of the Swedish "Östersjön"? Why are you again insisting on the idea of "fail to realize"? I already explicitly denied that I was talking about any such concept the first time you brought it up.
> (You did > claim that calques were mistakes, so I guess I am trying to figure out > what the mistake was here.) You're a too hung up on the specific choice of the word "mistake" (and consequently, again bringing in this extra notion of "fail to realize").
The fact is that sea that Finns call "Itämeri" does not lie to the east of most people who speak Finnish. This is a mismatch between reality and the compositional reading of "Itämeri", which can reasonably be called a "mistake", but I'll be forced to retract that label if you're going to continue assigning extra meanings to it like "fail to realize".
English speakers call guinea pigs "guinea pigs". It doesn't matter whether or not they "realize" that guinea pigs aren't actual pigs. The compositional reading of "guinea pigs" does not match reality, but that doesn't matter, because ordinary language users aren't literal-minded robots who automatically interpret everything they say and hear in a compositional way. Humans are perfectly capable of using and understanding non-compositional meanings of phrases that could in theory be interpreted compositionally. Their awareness or lack thereof of the mismatch between reality and a compositional meaning *that they aren't using in ordinary speech* is irrelevant (except in certain contexts, like jokes and word games, where such compositional readings are notable precisely because they go against ordinary usage).
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 03 May 2010 18:46 GMT >> I give up. What exactly *did* the Finns fail to realize when they >> coined "Itämeri" on the model of the Swedish "Östersjön"? > >Why are you again insisting on the idea of "fail to realize"? I >already explicitly denied that I was talking about any such concept >the first time you brought it up. I had said "failed to realize that to a Finn it would be misleading". I probably thought the only thing you were objecting to was the word "misleading".
>> (You did >> claim that calques were mistakes, so I guess I am trying to figure out [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] >consequently, again bringing in this extra notion of "fail to >realize"). So, you're saying that calquers make "mistakes" but do not "fail to realize" anything at all? You mean they *deliberately* make mistakes?
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 03 May 2010 19:49 GMT > >> (You did > >> claim that calques were mistakes, so I guess I am trying to figure out [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > So, you're saying that calquers make "mistakes" but do not "fail to > realize" anything at all? You mean they *deliberately* make mistakes? And here you go again, focusing on the word "mistake" and adding in "fail to realize"!
I'll say this one more time, and no more after that.
The kind of calques you're talking about here have compositional meanings that do not match reality (what you keep insisting is a "mistake").
Speakers who create these calques don't care about that mismatch. Whether they realize it or not is completely irrelevant. (Most likely they are aware on some level, since they have enough knowledge about the language to know the transparent compositional meaning, and probably have enough knowledge about the real world to see the mismatch. But they don't care.)
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 10 May 2010 19:16 GMT >> >> (You did >> >> claim that calques were mistakes, so I guess I am trying to figure out [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] >And here you go again, focusing on the word "mistake" and adding in >"fail to realize"! What do you mean?!? Read my question again. This time, I said "DO NOT fail to realize"!
>I'll say this one more time, and no more after that. > >The kind of calques you're talking about here have compositional >meanings that do not match reality (what you keep insisting is a >"mistake"). Oh, so now you're saying that *I'm* the one who believes that calquing is a mistake? It's whether *you* think there's anything wrong with calquing that I've been trying to figure out.
>Speakers who create these calques don't care about that mismatch. >Whether they realize it or not is completely irrelevant. (Most likely >they are aware on some level, since they have enough knowledge about >the language to know the transparent compositional meaning, and >probably have enough knowledge about the real world to see the >mismatch. But they don't care.) If these people don't care about the mismatch, they obviously wouldn't call the process of calquing the phrase a mistake.
You see, the thing is, back in February you claimed that calquing was a mistake, and I got all excited at first because you sounded as if you were sympathizing with me. I have felt the process of calquing to be somewhat silly ever since I had first read about it, and for every calque that at present is too established in a language to remove, I at least want a lot of people to agree with me that it is a mistake or that it is silly. And that's a matter of opinion.
Mistakes get established in language all the time. I mean like, how do you feel about "alcohol" and "algebra" and several other borrowings from Arabic that begin with "al-"? I know I've seen at least one linguistics book in which the use of the definitive form as the basis for the borrowing of these words into English was referred to as a mistake: after all, the phrase "the alcohol" is perfectly grammatical in English. Unfortunately, I've never seen a book in which the process of calquing is said to be a mistake. In my opinion, calques are either mistakes or plays on words. They can often seem "funny", even if they were never intended to be humorous. I guess my own mind must not "relate" any lexical items: "guinea pig" is totally independent from both "guinea" and "pig", just like the one "rare" is such from the other "rare".
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Peter T. Daniels - 10 May 2010 19:18 GMT > >In article <9a2ut5tfr4rrhvm5gd5l7o95f2dj195...@4ax.com>, > >> >In article <foqrs511bpgh9m35j03vnmbu7tih84a...@4ax.com>,
> >> >> (You did > >> >> claim that calques were mistakes, so I guess I am trying to figure out [quoted text clipped - 22 lines] > is a mistake? It's whether *you* think there's anything wrong with > calquing that I've been trying to figure out. Why are you asking Nathan to make a value judgment about a fact of human language? Calques exist. They are not "right" or "wrong." They are a linguistic phenomenon observed by linguists.
> >Speakers who create these calques don't care about that mismatch. > >Whether they realize it or not is completely irrelevant. (Most likely [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > at least want a lot of people to agree with me that it is a mistake or > that it is silly. And that's a matter of opinion. Why should etymologies be rid of "mistakes"? What does a butterfly have to do with either butter or flies? What does an English horn have to do with either English or horns?
> Mistakes get established in language all the time. I mean like, how > do you feel about "alcohol" and "algebra" and several other borrowings > from Arabic that begin with "al-"? I know I've seen at least one > linguistics book in which the use of the definitive form as the basis > for the borrowing of these words into English was referred to as a > mistake: after all, the phrase "the alcohol" is perfectly grammatical I find it very hard to believe that you saw a _linguistics_ book that made that claim.
You might have seen one of those pop-etymology books claiming it was "illogical." But "logic" has nothing to do with language.
> in English. Unfortunately, I've never seen a book in which the > process of calquing is said to be a mistake. In my opinion, calques [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > independent from both "guinea" and "pig", just like the one "rare" is > such from the other "rare". Adam Funk - 10 May 2010 20:09 GMT >> Oh, so now you're saying that *I'm* the one who believes that calquing >> is a mistake? It's whether *you* think there's anything wrong with [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > human language? Calques exist. They are not "right" or "wrong." They > are a linguistic phenomenon observed by linguists. Aren't most calques originally deliberate creations (by people with knowledge of a foreign language, in particular) rather than "natural" language changes?
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Peter T. Daniels - 11 May 2010 04:35 GMT > >> Oh, so now you're saying that *I'm* the one who believes that calquing > >> is a mistake? It's whether *you* think there's anything wrong with [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > knowledge of a foreign language, in particular) rather than "natural" > language changes? The "mistakes" Dan is looking for were by the namers, not the calquers. The big ocean isn't peaceful, and element no. 8 isn't necessary for acids, although their namers thought those characteristics were immutable, but once they got their names, those were the names they had, so why not simply translate them?
John Atkinson - 11 May 2010 04:45 GMT >>> Oh, so now you're saying that *I'm* the one who believes that calquing >>> is a mistake? It's whether *you* think there's anything wrong with [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > knowledge of a foreign language, in particular) rather than "natural" > language changes? It's "natural" for speakers of (most) languages to form calques from one of the other languages they know when, for whatever reason, they feel the need to create a new word. (Possible reasons for this perceived need: an old word with a particular meaning has been tabooed; it never existed because the thing it denotes has only just come to the attention of speakers of the language; the other language is of higher status; ...) This sort of thing has does, as you say, nearly always involve more or less conscious intent on the part of the "creator", but probably no more so than when a new word is created using the internal resources of the speaker's own language, or when it's borrowed without being translated.
Since most people have been multilingual from as far back as we can imagine until quite recently, calquing has most likely been around just as long. By me, that means that it's as "natural" as any other sort of language change.
John.
Adam Funk - 25 May 2010 14:21 GMT >> Aren't most calques originally deliberate creations (by people with >> knowledge of a foreign language, in particular) rather than "natural" [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > as long. By me, that means that it's as "natural" as any other sort of > language change. Interesting points.
If multilinguality is so natural, though, why do many linguists seem to insist that the best way to describe any language is strictly without reference to others?
(I'm thinking of a discussion where someone else argued that not only "gerund" but also "infinitive" is meaningless in English, which just has collocations of "to" with the bare form of the verb, parallels with other languages, even Germanic ones, notwithstanding.)
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Alan Munn - 25 May 2010 16:05 GMT > >> Aren't most calques originally deliberate creations (by people with > >> knowledge of a foreign language, in particular) rather than "natural" [quoted text clipped - 22 lines] > to insist that the best way to describe any language is strictly > without reference to others? I'm not sure what you mean here. Most linguists would probably think that we should describe languages in a system that is usable for all languages, and descriptions that are inherently tied to one language might be convenient, but not necessarily helpful in the larger enterprise.
> (I'm thinking of a discussion where someone else argued that not only > "gerund" but also "infinitive" is meaningless in English, which just > has collocations of "to" with the bare form of the verb, parallels > with other languages, even Germanic ones, notwithstanding.) Ah, I think you're talking about the Humpty Dumpties of this NG. "When I use the term infinitive it means exactly what I say it means, nothing more nothing less".
These folk seem to like terminology for its own sake, as if terms shouldn't have contextually varying meanings. As we discussed before, the world (even the scientific world) doesn't actually work that way. So I don't know whether your characterisation of "many linguists" is very accurate.
Alan
Adam Funk - 16 Jun 2010 21:49 GMT >> (I'm thinking of a discussion where someone else argued that not only >> "gerund" but also "infinitive" is meaningless in English, which just >> has collocations of "to" with the bare form of the verb, parallels >> with other languages, even Germanic ones, notwithstanding.) Not in either of these newsgroups, but elsewhere.
> Ah, I think you're talking about the Humpty Dumpties of this NG. "When > I use the term infinitive it means exactly what I say it means, nothing > more nothing less". I acknowledged that a verbal noun with "ing" in English isn't identical in function with a Latin gerund, but pointed out that English has an infinitive, syntactically but not morphologically speaking, with functions a lot like those of infinitives in other languages but not identical to the Latin one.
I was told that the Cambridge Grammar of the English Language deliberately refrains from the term "infinitive" but refers to collocations of "to" with the bare form of the verb.
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Alan Munn - 17 Jun 2010 00:25 GMT > >> (I'm thinking of a discussion where someone else argued that not only > >> "gerund" but also "infinitive" is meaningless in English, which just [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > deliberately refrains from the term "infinitive" but refers to > collocations of "to" with the bare form of the verb. Sorry Adam, but not only is this a quote from an old message, you've cut out the context so much that I no longer know what you're replying to.
What's the point of your most recent comment? (Maybe you should start a new thread (since we seem to now only have one or two mega-threads...)
Alan
Adam Funk - 21 Jun 2010 19:57 GMT >> I acknowledged that a verbal noun with "ing" in English isn't >> identical in function with a Latin gerund, but pointed out that [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > What's the point of your most recent comment? (Maybe you should start a > new thread (since we seem to now only have one or two mega-threads...) Sorry about that. I found the nearly finished post in my postponed directory.
John Atkinson wrote that "most people have been multilingual from as far back as we can imagine until quite recently", so I questioned (what I understand to be) the usual view among linguists that each language should be described synchronically and independently of other languages, even related ones, with the "no such thing as an 'infinitive' in English" argument as an example.
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Peter T. Daniels - 21 Jun 2010 20:57 GMT > > In article <70qne7xqoq....@news.ducksburg.com>,
> >> I acknowledged that a verbal noun with "ing" in English isn't > >> identical in function with a Latin gerund, but pointed out that [quoted text clipped - 21 lines] > languages, even related ones, with the "no such thing as an > 'infinitive' in English" argument as an example. I still don't see what this has to do with anything, but in people with more than one native language, they don't interfere with each other.
Adam Funk - 21 Jun 2010 21:50 GMT >> John Atkinson wrote that "most people have been multilingual from as >> far back as we can imagine until quite recently", so I questioned [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > with more than one native language, they don't interfere with each > other. My point was just that I don't see a problem with describing "to go" in "She wants him to go away" (for example) as an infinitive syntactically, although I understand that it consists of "to" and the bare form of "go" morphologically. The syntactic functions of "to go" seem fairly close to the infinitive's functions in other European languages where the latter is more or less morphologically distinct.
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Christian Weisgerber - 21 Jun 2010 22:39 GMT > I still don't see what this has to do with anything, but in people > with more than one native language, they don't interfere with each > other. So it is only learned languages that interfere with native ones (and vice versa, of course, but that is less interesting)?
 Signature Christian "naddy" Weisgerber naddy@mips.inka.de
Skitt - 22 Jun 2010 01:43 GMT >> I still don't see what this has to do with anything, but in people >> with more than one native language, they don't interfere with each >> other. > > So it is only learned languages that interfere with native ones > (and vice versa, of course, but that is less interesting)? In my case, only my two learned languages (German and English) interfered with each other for a short while when I was still learning English. Neither interfered with my native language (Latvian). My German is now almost completely gone, and my Latvian is somewhat shaky.
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Peter T. Daniels - 22 Jun 2010 04:15 GMT > > I still don't see what this has to do with anything, but in people > > with more than one native language, they don't interfere with each > > other. > > So it is only learned languages that interfere with native ones > (and vice versa, of course, but that is less interesting)? Well, it seems to be what evolution designed us for!
Dan McGrath - 18 May 2010 18:37 GMT >What does an English horn have >to do with either English or horns? Ha! This very term is one that I had planned on telling Nathan about!
I can remember reading about "English horn" on Wikipedia several months ago. It seems to be an actual, attested example of "an attempted calque gone wrong through mistranslation" (Nathan Sanders, 4/1/2008, describing my hypothetical German rendition of "rare steak" as "seltenes Steak").
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Peter T. Daniels - 18 May 2010 21:31 GMT > On Mon, 10 May 2010 11:18:41 -0700 (PDT), "Peter T. Daniels" > [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > 4/1/2008, describing my hypothetical German rendition of "rare steak" > as "seltenes Steak"). Actually it's sort-of half loanword, half calque -- done aurally. "Cor angle'" is 'angled horn', but "angle'" and "anglais" 'English' are virtually homonyms.
James Hogg - 18 May 2010 21:45 GMT >> On Mon, 10 May 2010 11:18:41 -0700 (PDT), "Peter T. Daniels" >> [quoted text clipped - 12 lines] > angle'" is 'angled horn', but "angle'" and "anglais" 'English' are > virtually homonyms. For that story to be true, there would have to be a French word "anglé", but there isn't. Another popular but equally unlikely tale derives the name from a German term meaning "angelic horn" (engellisches Horn), supposedly corrupted into "englisches Horn".
http://books.google.com/books?id=K6gjXe4NOi4C&pg=PA143&dq=%22cor+angl%C3%A9%22&h l=en&ei=7PvyS9SYJNHu-QadhI2EDg&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=10&ved=0CFAQ 6AEwCQ#v=onepage&q&f=false
 Signature James
Peter T. Daniels - 18 May 2010 21:59 GMT > >> On Mon, 10 May 2010 11:18:41 -0700 (PDT), "Peter T. Daniels" > [quoted text clipped - 17 lines] > name from a German term meaning "angelic horn" (engellisches Horn), > supposedly corrupted into "englisches Horn". Non angli, sed angeli.
James Hogg - 18 May 2010 22:40 GMT >>>>> What does an English horn have >>>>> to do with either English or horns? [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > > Non angli, sed angeli... ...said Gregory.
 Signature James
Nick - 23 May 2010 07:59 GMT >>>>>> What does an English horn have >>>>>> to do with either English or horns? [quoted text clipped - 15 lines] > > ...said Gregory. pontifically.
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Christian Weisgerber - 19 May 2010 01:00 GMT > For that story to be true, there would have to be a French word "anglé", > but there isn't. The French beg to differ. http://www.cnrtl.fr/definition/angl%C3%A9
 Signature Christian "naddy" Weisgerber naddy@mips.inka.de
James Hogg - 19 May 2010 06:23 GMT >> For that story to be true, there would have to be a French word "anglé", >> but there isn't. > > The French beg to differ. > http://www.cnrtl.fr/definition/angl%C3%A9 I have read that the word "anglé" was first recorded in print when it was suggested as the origin of "cor anglais".
 Signature James
Christian Weisgerber - 19 May 2010 12:20 GMT > >> For that story to be true, there would have to be a French word "anglé", > >> but there isn't. [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > I have read that the word "anglé" was first recorded in print when it > was suggested as the origin of "cor anglais". "Anglé" is simply the past participle of the verb "angler", which in turn is a straightforward derivation from "angle".
That said, "anglé" seems to be a sufficiently uncommon word to render this proposed etymology dubious. Wikipedia-FR favors the explanation that there was a confusion of German "engelisch" (angelic) and "englisch" (English); Wikipedia-DE counters by pointing out that this class of instruments originated in France.
Whatever the origin of the French term "cor anglais", everybody else has calqued it.
 Signature Christian "naddy" Weisgerber naddy@mips.inka.de
John Atkinson - 19 May 2010 05:15 GMT >>>> What does an English horn have >>>> to do with either English or horns? [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > For that story to be true, there would have to be a French word "anglé", > but there isn't. As someone has already pointed out, there is indeed a French word "anglé" (bent in an angle). The assertion that there isn't also occurs in Wikipedia -- and, since it's unlikely Peter looked it up there, I suspect it's a widespread myth among English-speaking musicians.
> Another popular but equally unlikely tale derives the > name from a German term meaning "angelic horn" (engellisches Horn), > supposedly corrupted into "englisches Horn". > > http://books.google.com/books?id=K6gjXe4NOi4C&pg=PA143&dq=%22cor+angl%C3%A9%22&h l=en&ei=7PvyS9SYJNHu-QadhI2EDg&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=10&ved=0CFAQ 6AEwCQ#v=onepage&q&f=false The term "cor anglais" (so spelled), whatever its etymology, almost certainly did not originate in English, so it is indeed a straightforward loanword in that language.
It follows that "English horn" is a proper calque, just as "corno inglés" is in Spanish. (Unless "English horn" was the original, and "cor anglais" a calque into French, a view which no one seems to profess.)
What do the Germans call them?
John.
Brian M. Scott - 19 May 2010 05:20 GMT On Wed, 19 May 2010 04:15:12 GMT, John Atkinson <johnacko@bigpond.com> wrote in <news:kBJIn.25717$pv.19543@news-server.bigpond.net.au> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
[...]
> It follows that "English horn" is a proper calque, just as > "corno inglés" is in Spanish. (Unless "English horn" > was the original, and "cor anglais" a calque into > French, a view which no one seems to profess.)
> What do the Germans call them? <http://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Englischhorn> has <Englischhorn> or <Englisch-Horn>.
Brian
Christian Weisgerber - 19 May 2010 11:50 GMT > It follows that "English horn" is a proper calque, just as "corno > inglés" is in Spanish. > > What do the Germans call them? "Englischhorn", probably calqued from French.
 Signature Christian "naddy" Weisgerber naddy@mips.inka.de
Evan Kirshenbaum - 21 May 2010 01:38 GMT >> On Mon, 10 May 2010 11:18:41 -0700 (PDT), "Peter T. Daniels" >> [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > angle'" is 'angled horn', but "angle'" and "anglais" 'English' are > virtually homonyms. So was the story my oboe teacher passed on to me. When I looked into it a few years ago, I found evidence that it was actually named in Italian for its association with England (actually Wales), e.g.,
Perhaps I may be pardoned here for observing, that one of the most ancient Welch musical instruments, called the Pib-corn or Pipe-horn, which is formed of a flute, with a mouth-piece not unlike that of the clarionet, inserted into a large horn which forms a trumpet-like termination to it, is still recorded by us in the favourite popular dance called the Hornpipe; and the sweetness of its tones have to this day maintained its use in Italy, under the name of Corno Inglese.
Henry Englefield, _A Walk Through Southampton_, 1805.
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Dan McGrath - 24 May 2010 18:39 GMT >> On Mon, 10 May 2010 11:18:41 -0700 (PDT), "Peter T. Daniels" >> [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] >angle'" is 'angled horn', but "angle'" and "anglais" 'English' are >virtually homonyms. Half loanword, half calque? Wouldn't that produce something like "cor English" or "horn anglé/anglais"?
Look, here's what Wikipedia (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cor_anglais_(English_horn)) says:
# The term cor anglais is French for English horn, but the instrument # is neither from England nor a horn. The instrument is thought to # have originated in Silesia about 1720, when a bulb bell was added to # the oboe da caccia, a Baroque alto instrument of the oboe family, # possibly by J. T. Weigel of Breslau. The two-keyed, open-belled # straight tenor oboe (in French called "taille de hautbois", i.e., # tenor oboe) and more especially the flare-belled oboe da caccia # resembled the horns played by angels in religious icons of the # Middle Ages and this gave rise in German-speaking central Europe to # the Middle High German name engellisches Horn, meaning angelic horn. # But engellisch also meant English in the vernacular of the time, and # so the angelic horn became the English horn, a name which was # retained, in the absence of any better alternative, for the curved, # bulb-belled tenor oboe even after the oboe da caccia fell into # disuse around 1760.[1] # [...] # # Its name is sometimes said to derive from its original resemblance # to the oboe da caccia, which tended to be either bent or curved in # shape and was thus supposedly called a cor anglé (bent horn), a name # later corrupted to cor anglais. The cor anglais still has a bent # metal pipe, known as the bocal, which connects the reed to the # instrument proper. This, however, is a false etymology, as anglé # does not mean angled in any language. The name first appeared on a # regular basis in Italian, German and Austrian scores from 1749, # usually in the Italian form corno inglese.
Note that with both the "angled" and "angelic" theories, the name "English horn" (in the latter case, also "cor anglais") would be the result of a misunderstanding during translation. Do you think that the term "English horn" is a "mistranslated" attempt at a calque, analogous to my hypothetical "seltenes [Steak]" example that I've given before periodically? I've been trying to come up with a good attested example of such a "mistranslation" that I can throw Nathan with.
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 10 May 2010 19:57 GMT > >> >> (You did > >> >> claim that calques were mistakes, so I guess I am trying to figure out [quoted text clipped - 12 lines] > What do you mean?!? Read my question again. This time, I said "DO > NOT fail to realize"! You're bringing in the entire concept of "(not) fail to realize" (whether it's positive or negated).
I'm telling you that "(not) fail to realize" is irrelevant.
> >I'll say this one more time, and no more after that. > > [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > Oh, so now you're saying that *I'm* the one who believes that calquing > is a mistake? Don't you?
> It's whether *you* think there's anything wrong with > calquing that I've been trying to figure out. As Peter said, I'm not making any value judgments on whether it's "wrong" or not. I'm simply describing the facts.
> >Speakers who create these calques don't care about that mismatch. > >Whether they realize it or not is completely irrelevant. (Most likely [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > If these people don't care about the mismatch, they obviously wouldn't > call the process of calquing the phrase a mistake. And most of them don't.
> You see, the thing is, back in February you claimed that calquing was > a mistake, I stupidly thought that I could avoid having to type out a full explanation like "a mismatch between reality and the transparent compositional meaning", by just choosing a quick, laymen's shorthand that carried roughly the same meaning in context. Unfortunately, you have since taken that shorthand to be some sort of official, well-defined gospel truth. Had I been writing a journal article for an audience of trained linguists, I'd have chosen my wording more carefully from the outset.
I have now spent an inordinate amount of time correcting you on what I actually intended, using more formal language, so I would hope that you would extend me the courtesy of not harping on a particular, off-the-cuff laymen's phrasing that I have since clarified numerous times.
> and I got all excited at first because you sounded as if > you were sympathizing with me. I have felt the process of calquing to > be somewhat silly ever since I had first read about it, And yet, no matter how silly you or other people think it may be, it exists. So apparently, your notion of silliness is irrelevant to describing how language actually operates.
> and for every > calque that at present is too established in a language to remove, I > at least want a lot of people to agree with me that it is a mistake or > that it is silly. And that's a matter of opinion. Opinions are like a.sholes...
This is sci.lang, not opinion.lang. We (or at least, I) care more for accurate, rigorous descriptions of language than for random strangers' unscientific opinions about language.
> Mistakes get established in language all the time. I mean like, how > do you feel about "alcohol" and "algebra" and several other borrowings > from Arabic that begin with "al-"? I know I've seen at least one > linguistics book in which the use of the definitive form as the basis > for the borrowing of these words into English was referred to as a > mistake: I highly doubt it was any sort of reputable linguistics book.
> after all, the phrase "the alcohol" is perfectly grammatical > in English. Of course it is. And it's certainly not a mistake in English.
> Unfortunately, I've never seen a book in which the > process of calquing is said to be a mistake. Nor should you.
> In my opinion, calques > are either mistakes or plays on words. They can often seem "funny", > even if they were never intended to be humorous. I guess my own mind > must not "relate" any lexical items: "guinea pig" is totally > independent from both "guinea" and "pig", How odd that you don't see any silliness in "guinea pig", despite its obvious transparent compositional relationship to "Guinea" and "pig", and yet for a language like Finnish (which I presume you are not a native speaker of), your opinion is that their calque *is* a silly mistake.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 02 Jun 2010 19:01 GMT >> In my opinion, calques >> are either mistakes or plays on words. They can often seem "funny", [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] >native speaker of), your opinion is that their calque *is* a silly >mistake. You don't seem to understand. My mind apparently doesn't relate lexical items, and it treats the phonetic identity between "guinea pig" and "Guinea" + "pig" as being "accidental". Therefore, "guinea pig" itself is not "silly" in any way. It *would*, on the other hand, be silly to calque the term as if it were a combination of "Guinea" and "pig", since (as I just demonstrated) it isn't.
I suppose another way this could be said is that in my mind, there are probably no synchronic morphemes: the next highest unit of language above the phoneme (or grapheme) is the lexeme. When I first heard of morphemes, I can remember thinking for a while that they were a purely diachronic concept.
BTW Nathan, would *you* ever consider taking an existing term (including a misnomer) from another language and calquing it, hoping that someday the new term might catch on? I don't think I would!
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Peter T. Daniels - 02 Jun 2010 21:38 GMT > On Mon, 10 May 2010 14:57:44 -0400, Nathan Sanders > [quoted text clipped - 23 lines] > morphemes, I can remember thinking for a while that they were a purely > diachronic concept. English's pitifully small array of inflectional morphemes is perfectly synchronic:
noun: -s -'s
verb: -s -ed -ing -en
adjective: -er -est
> BTW Nathan, would *you* ever consider taking an existing term > (including a misnomer) from another language and calquing it, hoping > that someday the new term might catch on? I don't think I would! English grammars of Arabic certainly did that. The definite article al- assimilates to a following consonant with dental place of articulation, including s as in sams- 'sun', and the set of letters where this happens is called the "sun letters" in English. (The ones where it doesn't happen are called the "moon letters."
Early 19th-century English grammaros of Hebrew called the various verbal derivational stems by some word that translated "binyan" -- some word meaning 'building', but I don't remember what -- though nowadays we just say "binyan." (The Arabic equivalents are called "Forms" I-X and XI-XV.)
Christian Weisgerber - 02 Jun 2010 23:27 GMT > English's pitifully small array of inflectional morphemes is perfectly > synchronic: > > noun: -s -'s > verb: -s -ed -ing -en > adjective: -er -est English has a verb inflection "-en"?
 Signature Christian "naddy" Weisgerber naddy@mips.inka.de
Alan Munn - 03 Jun 2010 03:03 GMT > > English's pitifully small array of inflectional morphemes is perfectly > > synchronic: [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > English has a verb inflection "-en"? Sure, the passive/perfect participle.
John has eaten. The cake was eaten.
Has quite a few allomorphs including -ed, but its citation form in linguistics is -en. On a nonsense verb, -ed would be the preferred form, though.
Alan
Christian Weisgerber - 03 Jun 2010 12:03 GMT > > > English's pitifully small array of inflectional morphemes is perfectly > > > synchronic: [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > > Sure, the passive/perfect participle. Surely this is lexicalized from a synchronic perspective?
It also shows up on adjectives that historically derive from past participles but can't be used in that function any longer: drunken, molten, rotten, sunken
 Signature Christian "naddy" Weisgerber naddy@mips.inka.de
Alan Munn - 03 Jun 2010 13:57 GMT > > > > English's pitifully small array of inflectional morphemes is perfectly > > > > synchronic: [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > > Surely this is lexicalized from a synchronic perspective? That form, yes, very possibly, although that depends also on what you mean by lexicalized. There's certainly a closed class of verbs which use it, which is why I added the comment about only being able to use -ed on nonsense words, despite -en being the citation form. So the productive suffix here is certainly -ed.
> It also shows up on adjectives that historically derive from past > participles but can't be used in that function any longer: > drunken, molten, rotten, sunken Yes.
Alan
Adam Funk - 03 Jun 2010 14:13 GMT >> > > English has a verb inflection "-en"? >> > [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > nonsense words, despite -en being the citation form. So the productive > suffix here is certainly -ed. I'm sure I've heard -en used humorously as if it were a live suffix. Does that count for anything?
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Joachim Pense - 03 Jun 2010 14:37 GMT Am 03.06.2010 15:13, schrieb Adam Funk:
>>>>> English has a verb inflection "-en"? >>>> [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > I'm sure I've heard -en used humorously as if it were a live suffix. > Does that count for anything? Are you sure you are not thinking about the -en noun plural suffixes humorously used for Vax (computer), pl. Vaxen?
Joachim
Adam Funk - 03 Jun 2010 19:36 GMT > Am 03.06.2010 15:13, schrieb Adam Funk: [-en inflection on verbs]
>> I'm sure I've heard -en used humorously as if it were a live suffix. >> Does that count for anything? > > Are you sure you are not thinking about the -en noun plural suffixes > humorously used for Vax (computer), pl. Vaxen? No, I'm thinking about verbs (or other words that are being "verbed"), but unfortunately I can't come up with an example now.
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Peter Moylan - 03 Jun 2010 14:42 GMT >>>>> English has a verb inflection "-en"? >>>> Sure, the passive/perfect participle. [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > I'm sure I've heard -en used humorously as if it were a live suffix. > Does that count for anything? If it does, -en should also have been listed as a noun inflection.
 Signature Peter Moylan, Newcastle, NSW, Australia. http://www.pmoylan.org For an e-mail address, see my web page.
Peter T. Daniels - 03 Jun 2010 17:29 GMT On Jun 3, 9:42 am, Peter Moylan <inva...@peter.pmoylan.org.invalid> wrote:
> >> In article <hu8256$233...@lorvorc.mips.inka.de>, > [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > > If it does, -en should also have been listed as a noun inflection. Whether it does or not, it's an allomorph of -s, not a different inflection.
Alan Munn - 03 Jun 2010 14:59 GMT > >> > > English has a verb inflection "-en"? > >> > [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > I'm sure I've heard -en used humorously as if it were a live suffix. > Does that count for anything? You mean the plural version as in vaxen, and linux boxen?
Unfortunately no.
Alan
Adam Funk - 03 Jun 2010 19:20 GMT >> >> > > English has a verb inflection "-en"? >> >> > [quoted text clipped - 14 lines] > > Unfortunately no. I'm aware of that, but I meant on verbs (or words used as nonce verbs), although I can't think of any examples at the moment.
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R H Draney - 03 Jun 2010 19:40 GMT Adam Funk filted:
>>> I'm sure I've heard -en used humorously as if it were a live suffix. >>> Does that count for anything? [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] >I'm aware of that, but I meant on verbs (or words used as nonce >verbs), although I can't think of any examples at the moment. I'm sure once you freshen your memory you'll let us know....r
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Peter T. Daniels - 03 Jun 2010 14:25 GMT > > > > English's pitifully small array of inflectional morphemes is perfectly > > > > synchronic: [quoted text clipped - 12 lines] > participles but can't be used in that function any longer: > drunken, molten, rotten, sunken That isn't inflection.
Oliver Cromm - 04 Jun 2010 23:15 GMT * Alan Munn:
>>> English's pitifully small array of inflectional morphemes is perfectly >>> synchronic: [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > linguistics is -en. On a nonsense verb, -ed would be the preferred > form, though. I guess that's to differentiate it from the other -ed suffix.
But now I wonder how to prove that those two are separate *synchronically*?
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Alan Munn - 05 Jun 2010 00:01 GMT > * Alan Munn: > [quoted text clipped - 17 lines] > > I guess that's to differentiate it from the other -ed suffix. Yes.
> But now I wonder how to prove that those two are separate > *synchronically*? Well functionally they certainly are separate (i.e., the participle vs. the past tense) but if nonsense words tell us something about synchronic productivity of the form, then -ed is the productive form and therefore indistinguishable from the past tense in the form of the productive suffix. (If that's what you were asking.)
Alan
Oliver Cromm - 07 Jun 2010 23:36 GMT * Alan Munn:
>> * Alan Munn: >> [quoted text clipped - 28 lines] > indistinguishable from the past tense in the form of the productive > suffix. (If that's what you were asking.) Pretty much, yes. Participle and gerund also are clearly separate in function, but I never doubted they use the same suffix. So I was wondering, when people inflect nonsense verbs, would they be adding "this -ed" for past tense and "the other -ed" for the participle, or would they see them as identical. I suspect the latter, if the question even makes sense.
 Signature gugelfechten, vb., sich närrisch aufführen, narren, fantasieren, gauglen und gugelfechten ZWENGEL formularbuch (1568) 39b. -- GRIMM, Deutsches Wörterbuch
Alan Munn - 08 Jun 2010 00:19 GMT > * Alan Munn: > [quoted text clipped - 37 lines] > would they see them as identical. I suspect the latter, if the question > even makes sense. The answer depends a lot on (i) how one theorizes about the morphemes, and (ii) whether by "see them as identical" you mean consciously or not.
On (i)
Various current theories of morphology separate the 'pieces' of phonological content from the (bundles of) grammatical features they may encode. Under this view, the bundles are the 'morphemes' and the pieces are not morphemes (they are sometimes called 'vocabulary items'). So the answer to the question of whether -en represents two morphemes or one is roughly "Yes". Specifically, we might think of the two functional bundles of features (the past tense and the participle) as different morphemes both of which are spelled out with the same piece of phonological stuff or vocabulary item. Under this view, the spelled out pieces do not carry any semantic content themselves, (in the lexicon) but are underspecified with respect to the set of morphosyntactic feature bundles that they can be associated with. (I hope this makes some sense.)
On (ii)
Consciously, many people have really crappy metalinguistic awareness, and since grammar is not taught almost at all (and if taught, taught badly), American students for example, generally don't often see that the perfect and the past tense are different. However, if you give someone a sentence completion task such as "John is blarping the ball. Now he has ..." people will certainly continue with "blarped", and I have no doubts that they will 'know' (but not consciously) that this is the perfect and not the past.
Alan
Brian M. Scott - 08 Jun 2010 01:38 GMT On Mon, 07 Jun 2010 19:19:53 -0400, Alan Munn <amunn@msu.edu> wrote in <news:amunn-20DE32.19195307062010@reserved-multicast-range-NOT-delegated.example.com> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
[...]
> However, if you give someone a sentence completion task > such as "John is blarping the ball. Now he has ..." > people will certainly continue with "blarped", [...] Unless you run into an enthusiast for the Gesellschaft zur Stärkung der Verben (<http://verben.texttheater.de/Startseite>), who is likely to give you <blorpen> or <blarpen>. <g>
I'm really quite fond of some of their 'verstorkene Verben', even the truly bizarre, like wir googeln, ich gooolg (pron. gu-olg), ich habe gooolgen (pron. gu-olgen). And I still want to write the bawdy verse that ends <þe cherl haþ of y-wonken>.
Brian
Alan Munn - 08 Jun 2010 03:33 GMT > On Mon, 07 Jun 2010 19:19:53 -0400, Alan Munn > <amunn@msu.edu> wrote in [quoted text clipped - 20 lines] > > Brian Very clever!
Alan
Adam Funk - 11 Jun 2010 19:54 GMT > Unless you run into an enthusiast for the Gesellschaft zur > Stärkung der Verben [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > want to write the bawdy verse that ends <þe cherl haþ of > y-wonken>. The English proposals are good too.
http://verben.texttheater.de/Englisch
 Signature Physics is like sex. Sure, it may give some practical results, but that's not why we do it. [Richard Feynman]
Peter Moylan - 03 Jun 2010 04:00 GMT >> English's pitifully small array of inflectional morphemes is perfectly >> synchronic: [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > English has a verb inflection "-en"? Past participle; but only for some of the strong verbs.
 Signature Peter Moylan, Newcastle, NSW, Australia. http://www.pmoylan.org For an e-mail address, see my web page.
James Hogg - 03 Jun 2010 09:25 GMT >> English's pitifully small array of inflectional morphemes is perfectly >> synchronic: [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > English has a verb inflection "-en"? broken, eaten, spoken, etc.
 Signature James
Nathan Sanders - 04 Jun 2010 19:59 GMT > I suppose another way this could be said is that in my mind, there are > probably no synchronic morphemes: the next highest unit of language > above the phoneme (or grapheme) is the lexeme. When I first heard of > morphemes, I can remember thinking for a while that they were a purely > diachronic concept. Then you had (and still have?) a deeply flawed understanding of what morphemes are.
> BTW Nathan, would *you* ever consider taking an existing term > (including a misnomer) from another language and calquing it, Yes, I often feel that linguistically playful.
> hoping that someday the new term might catch on? No, I rarely feel that self-important, linguistically or otherwise.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Dan McGrath - 02 Jun 2010 19:01 GMT >> It's whether *you* think there's anything wrong with >> calquing that I've been trying to figure out. > >As Peter said, I'm not making any value judgments on whether it's >"wrong" or not. I'm simply describing the facts. The trouble is that you *have* been making "value judgments" about such hypothetical expressions as "seltenes Steak" ever since our discussion of two years ago. If you hadn't described that phrase in 2008 as "an attempted calque gone wrong through mistranslation", I suppose our argument might have been done with a lot sooner! How do you feel about "English horn", assuming that this is a mistranslation (which seems to have been sort of debated in the recent discussion)?
I've been trying to come up with good examples of actual terms that came from mistranslated attempts at calquing. That might demonstrate my point better than something that is merely hypothetical. In addition to Peter's "English horn", I had been thinking of a type of cubic curve in mathematics known as the "witch of Agnesi". The entry in MWCD11 suggests that someone translated the Italian word "versiera" with the wrong meaning -- just like your hypothetical example "Flèche Novice", which translates English "green" with the wrong meaning. Now, you've already agreed with me that phrases like "the alcohol" are perfectly grammatical in English in spite of being etymologically redundant. I assume, then, that you will tell me that the term "witch of Agnesi" is equally legitimate. By that logic, you should stop making value judgments like the ones you did, as with when you said that "Flèche Verte" was right and "Flèche Novice" was wrong.
- Dan
 Signature Daniel G. McGrath Binghamton, New York e-mail: dmcg6174[AT]gmail[DOT]com
Nathan Sanders - 04 Jun 2010 19:49 GMT > >> It's whether *you* think there's anything wrong with > >> calquing that I've been trying to figure out. [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > 2008 as "an attempted calque gone wrong through mistranslation", I > suppose our argument might have been done with a lot sooner! You misunderstand the scope of "wrong" in my statement. It's supposed to be read as restricted to "attempted calque". That is, if you held it up as an example of a calque, I would claim it was a bad example of a calque.
This is similar to what happens when we talk about a "bad doctor", a "good lawyer", or a "large coin". The adjective are restricted to specific qualities of the noun and are not intended as universal descriptions beyond that (a bad doctor could very well still be a good human being, while good lawyers are of course all inherently evil, and large coins will still be small in comparison to most other physical objects in the world).
> How do > you feel about "English horn", assuming that this is a mistranslation > (which seems to have been sort of debated in the recent discussion)? When the actual etymology of the phrase gets sorted out, let me know. But for the sake of argument, let's assume it did turn out to be a pseduo-calque through homophone (mis)translation. So what?
> I've been trying to come up with good examples of actual terms that > came from mistranslated attempts at calquing. For what purpose? To show that it happens? I'm quite sure that somewhere in the history of English, it has probably happened at least once. Lots of things happen in language. Humans can be pretty inventive. Just look at lists of folk etymologies to see how crazy our linguistic imaginations can be.
But the fact that you're having so much trouble finding examples of these pseudo-calque via homophone (mis)translation and had to resort primarily to hypotheticals like "seltenes Steak" should tell you something about how resistant language users are to doing it. They simply don't do this anywhere nearly as frequently as they do other kinds of translations.
Further, the fact that there isn't a good jargony term for this phenomenon should also be a clue that it's probably so rare as to not be worth talking about. After all the time (*years*) you've spent talking about this phenomenon, you've only managed to come up with one (questionable) example!
In comparison, how many true calques could you have come up with in the same amount time?
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Peter T. Daniels - 04 Jun 2010 22:07 GMT > In article <587d06d1016rk8jo9iqbcph65fhmqk7...@4ax.com>,
> You misunderstand the scope of "wrong" in my statement. It's supposed > to be read as restricted to "attempted calque". That is, if you held [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > large coins will still be small in comparison to most other physical > objects in the world). Is a dime larger or smaller than a nickel?
Answer: Yes.
Glenn Knickerbocker - 04 Jun 2010 23:23 GMT >> large coins will still be small in comparison to most other physical >> objects in the world). > Is a dime larger or smaller than a nickel? See also:
http://www.bbc.co.uk/cult/hitchhikers/gallery/guide/ningi.shtml
¬R
Adam Funk - 05 Jun 2010 21:55 GMT >>> large coins will still be small in comparison to most other physical >>> objects in the world). [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > http://www.bbc.co.uk/cult/hitchhikers/gallery/guide/ningi.shtml For simplicity's sake, we should all just switch to zorkmids.
 Signature And remember, while you're out there risking your life and limb through shot and shell, we'll be in be in here thinking what a sucker you are. [Rufus T. Firefly]
Adam Funk - 05 Jun 2010 21:57 GMT >> This is similar to what happens when we talk about a "bad doctor", a >> "good lawyer", or a "large coin". The adjective are restricted to [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > > Answer: Yes. Rai stone crushes scissors, but you need a *big* sheet of paper to beat it.
 Signature Taken on the whole however this is a fine disc and a good example of the current pop scene attempting to break out of its vulgarisms and sometimes downright obscene derivative hogwash. (Julian Stone-Mason B.A., 1972)
Adam Funk - 07 Jun 2010 21:29 GMT > This is similar to what happens when we talk about a "bad doctor", a > "good lawyer", or a "large coin". The adjective are restricted to [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > large coins will still be small in comparison to most other physical > objects in the world). My formal semantics professor said that all adjective are non-intersective, and his approach produces something like
meaning("a big breadbox") = lambda X . big(X, breadbox(X))
meaning("a small car") = lambda Y . small(Y, car(Y))
for any NP with that structure; i.e., it's a breadbox and it's big as breadboxes go, and you need to reason with world knowledge to conclude that an instance of X is probably smaller than an instance of Y.
(Of course, you should probably put a special plural noun entry for "disabled" in the lexicon to handle "a disabled toilet" correctly.)
 Signature "Gonzo, is that the contract from the devil?" "No, Kermit, it's worse than that. This is the bill from special effects."
Brian M. Scott - 07 Jun 2010 22:11 GMT On Mon, 07 Jun 2010 21:29:37 +0100, Adam Funk <a24061@ducksburg.com> wrote in <news:he10e7xuce.ln2@news.ducksburg.com> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
>> This is similar to what happens when we talk about a "bad doctor", a >> "good lawyer", or a "large coin". The adjective are restricted to [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] >> large coins will still be small in comparison to most other physical >> objects in the world).
> My formal semantics professor said that all adjective are > non-intersective, and his approach produces something like
> meaning("a big breadbox") = lambda X . big(X, breadbox(X))
> meaning("a small car") = lambda Y . small(Y, car(Y))
> for any NP with that structure; i.e., it's a breadbox and it's big as > breadboxes go, and you need to reason with world knowledge to conclude > that an instance of X is probably smaller than an instance of Y. How did he deal with intersective readings of phrases like 'good lawyer'?
[...]
Brian
Adam Funk - 08 Jun 2010 15:49 GMT >> My formal semantics professor said that all adjective are >> non-intersective, and his approach produces something like [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > How did he deal with intersective readings of phrases like > 'good lawyer'? Is that intersective? "A good lawyer" means something like "someone who is good at practising law", not "someone who is good and who is a lawyer", e.g., "He's a good lawyer but a bad golfer."
 Signature I spend almost as much time figuring out what's wrong with my computer as I do actually using it. Networked software, especially, requires frequent updates and maintenance, all of which gets in the way of doing routine work. (Stoll 1995)
Nathan Sanders - 08 Jun 2010 16:12 GMT > >> My formal semantics professor said that all adjective are > >> non-intersective, and his approach produces something like [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > > Is that intersective? It certainly has an intersective reading. The intersective reading of "good" is perhaps more obvious in "Glinda, the good witch".
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Adam Funk - 09 Jun 2010 21:08 GMT >> >> My formal semantics professor said that all adjective are >> >> non-intersective, and his approach produces something like [quoted text clipped - 14 lines] > It certainly has an intersective reading. The intersective reading of > "good" is perhaps more obvious in "Glinda, the good witch". (OK, but Brian supplied a joke, so I'll reply further to his post.)
 Signature Two of the most famous products of Berkeley are LSD and Unix. I don't think that this is a coincidence. [anonymous]
Brian M. Scott - 08 Jun 2010 19:40 GMT On Tue, 08 Jun 2010 15:49:23 +0100, Adam Funk <a24061@ducksburg.com> wrote in <news:js12e7xbkt.ln2@news.ducksburg.com> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
>>> My formal semantics professor said that all adjective are >>> non-intersective, and his approach produces something like
>>> meaning("a big breadbox") = lambda X . big(X, breadbox(X))
>>> meaning("a small car") = lambda Y . small(Y, car(Y))
>>> for any NP with that structure; i.e., it's a breadbox and it's big as >>> breadboxes go, and you need to reason with world knowledge to conclude >>> that an instance of X is probably smaller than an instance of Y.
>> How did he deal with intersective readings of phrases like >> 'good lawyer'?
> Is that intersective? "A good lawyer" means something > like "someone who is good at practising law", That's usually the appropriate reading, but not always.
> not "someone who is good and who is a lawyer", [...] Sometimes it does, and that's the reading about which I was asking.
'What do you call it when a ship full of lawyers is lost with all hands?' 'A good start.' 'That's a bit harsh: I've known a good lawyer or two.'
Brian
Adam Funk - 09 Jun 2010 21:10 GMT >> Is that intersective? "A good lawyer" means something >> like "someone who is good at practising law", [quoted text clipped - 12 lines] > > 'That's a bit harsh: I've known a good lawyer or two.' Aha. It's been a few years since I worked with formal semantics, and this sort of thing never came up, but I expect the way to do it (as well as with Nathan's "good witch") would be to produce the LF with the non-intersective reading and then reason from there.
 Signature I don't know what they have to say It makes no difference anyway; Whatever it is, I'm against it! [Prof. Wagstaff]
Nathan Sanders - 07 Jun 2010 22:43 GMT > > This is similar to what happens when we talk about a "bad doctor", a > > "good lawyer", or a "large coin". The adjective are restricted to [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > My formal semantics professor said that all adjective are > non-intersective, This doesn't seem correct. For example, a "male doctor" and a "male nurse" are both male, while a "good doctor" and a "good nurse" are not necessarily both good.
Are you sure he didn't say *gradable* adjectives are non-intersective? Non-gradable adjectives seem to always be semantically intersective:
#John is a male nurse, but he isn't a male person. #That's a brown mouse, but it isn't a brown animal. #I saw a dead petunia, but I didn't see a dead plant.
Nathan
 Signature Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/
Adam Funk - 08 Jun 2010 16:00 GMT >> My formal semantics professor said that all adjective are >> non-intersective, (Maybe he was exaggerating a little to make the point that adjectives are generally less intersective than people think.)
> This doesn't seem correct. For example, a "male doctor" and a "male > nurse" are both male, while a "good doctor" and a "good nurse" are not [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > #John is a male nurse, but he isn't a male person. Good point, but he's very good at finding non-intersective situations for adjectives that his students postulate are intersective. I think for that example he would produce the non-intersective logical form and have a rule to obtain the intersective stuff for some properties.
male(X, Y(X)) => male(X) & Y(X) [maybe]
> #That's a brown mouse, but it isn't a brown animal. Yes, I asked about colours and he pointed out things like "red hair", "white (black, &c) person". (If I say "Fred has red hair and his wife has a red car", you probably don't imagine them both matching exactly in your mental model.)
> #I saw a dead petunia, but I didn't see a dead plant. I'm sure he'd argue this too. For one thing, you expect people to react differently if you say "my $relative is dead" or "my starter-motor is dead". (His interest in formal semantics goes further than the usual Montague range; for him, LFs serve as material for reasoning and trying to formally model mental models.)
 Signature Leila: "I don't think he knows." Agent Rogersz: "Increase the voltage." Leila: "What if he's innocent?" Agent Rogersz: "No one is innocent. Proceed" (Cox 1984)
Adam Funk - 09 Jun 2010 21:17 GMT Today I thought of a curious term in cycling: "clipless pedals".
There are three ways to connect your shoes to the cranks.
1. Traditional or plain pedals: push down on each pedal on the down-stroke. (No clips.)
2. Pedals with toe-clips: slide your shoes into the clips so that you can pull up a bit on one side while pushing down on the other.
3. "Clipless pedals" have a mechanism into which shoes with a special cleat latch. (I would describe them as having an "internal clip" if a standardized name did not already exist.)
http://www.sheldonbrown.com/gloss_p.html#pedal
 Signature hmmmm: sounds like the same DLL hell problem my cousin had. try deleting all DLLs in your Windows/system32 directory and see what happens. (Bryce Utting)
Brian M. Scott - 09 Jun 2010 21:45 GMT On Wed, 09 Jun 2010 21:17:37 +0100, Adam Funk <a24061@ducksburg.com> wrote in <news:1g95e7xk5n.ln2@news.ducksburg.com> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
> Today I thought of a curious term in cycling: "clipless pedals".
> There are three ways to connect your shoes to the cranks.
> 1. Traditional or plain pedals: push down on each pedal on the > down-stroke. (No clips.)
> 2. Pedals with toe-clips: slide your shoes into the clips so that you > can pull up a bit on one side while pushing down on the other.
> 3. "Clipless pedals" have a mechanism into which shoes with a special > cleat latch. (I would describe them as having an "internal clip" > if a standardized name did not already exist.)
> http://www.sheldonbrown.com/gloss_p.html#pedal But the best part is that one clips in to and clips out of clipless pedals.
Brian
Peter Duncanson (BrE) - 09 Jun 2010 22:09 GMT >On Wed, 09 Jun 2010 21:17:37 +0100, Adam Funk ><a24061@ducksburg.com> wrote in [quoted text clipped - 19 lines] >But the best part is that one clips in to and clips out of >clipless pedals. And when using them one can travel at a good clip.
 Signature Peter Duncanson, UK (in alt.usage.english)
Adam Funk - 10 Jun 2010 12:49 GMT > On Wed, 09 Jun 2010 21:17:37 +0100, Adam Funk ><a24061@ducksburg.com> wrote in [quoted text clipped - 19 lines] > But the best part is that one clips in to and clips out of > clipless pedals. Yes indeed, I'd forgotten that.
 Signature Usenet is a cesspool, a dung heap. [Patrick A. Townson]
Peter T. Daniels - 09 Jun 2010 22:29 GMT > Today I thought of a curious term in cycling: "clipless pedals". Sounds like a retronym.
> There are three ways to connect your shoes to the cranks. > [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > > http://www.sheldonbrown.com/gloss_p.html#pedal Evan Kirshenbaum - 09 Jun 2010 23:10 GMT >> Today I thought of a curious term in cycling: "clipless pedals". > > Sounds like a retronym. But, as he goes on to describe, isn't.
>> There are three ways to connect your shoes to the cranks. >> [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] >> >> http://www.sheldonbrown.com/gloss_p.html#pedal
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Peter T. Daniels - 10 Jun 2010 03:12 GMT > >> Today I thought of a curious term in cycling: "clipless pedals". > > > Sounds like a retronym. > > But, as he goes on to describe, isn't. How you figure?
Pedals without clips existed for a good century before pedals with clips.
> >> There are three ways to connect your shoes to the cranks. > [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > > >>http://www.sheldonbrown.com/gloss_p.html#pedal Evan Kirshenbaum - 10 Jun 2010 06:11 GMT >> >> Today I thought of a curious term in cycling: "clipless pedals". >> [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > Pedals without clips existed for a good century before pedals with > clips. And, explicitly, those pedals are his case 1: "Traditional or plain pedals", *not* the ones he was describing as "clipless":
>> >> There are three ways to connect your shoes to the cranks. >> >> >> 1. Traditional or plain pedals: push down on each pedal on the >> >> down-stroke. (No clips.) Clipless pedals are apparently a newfangled kind, replacing those with clips, not merely a new name for the old style.
Which was, I thought, the point of the article, pointing it out as a "curious term" precisely because it could easily apply to the original form, but didn't.
>> >> 2. Pedals with toe-clips: slide your shoes into the clips so that you >> >> can pull up a bit on one side while pushing down on the other. [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] >> >> >>http://www.sheldonbrown.com/gloss_p.html#pedal
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Adam Funk - 10 Jun 2010 12:46 GMT > Clipless pedals are apparently a newfangled kind, replacing those with > clips, not merely a new name for the old style. I was surprised to learn just now that Charles Hanson invented the clipless pedal in 1895, but I haven't been able to confirm that he called them that.
http://www.bicycle-adventures.com/bicycle-pedals.html
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bicycle_pedal#Clipless_pedals
 Signature Two of the most famous products of Berkeley are LSD and Unix. I don't think that this is a coincidence. [anonymous]
Trond Engen - 09 Jun 2010 22:33 GMT Adam Funk:
> Today I thought of a curious term in cycling: "clipless pedals". > > There are three ways to connect your shoes to the cranks. Franz! Beware!
 Signature Trond Engen
Hans Aberg - 09 Jun 2010 22:55 GMT > Today I thought of a curious term in cycling: "clipless pedals". > [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > cleat latch. (I would describe them as having an "internal clip" > if a standardized name did not already exist.) There are magnet pedals, too. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bicycle_pedal#Magnet_pedals
Hans
Adam Funk - 10 Jun 2010 12:47 GMT >> 3. "Clipless pedals" have a mechanism into which shoes with a special >> cleat latch. (I would describe them as having an "internal clip" >> if a standardized name did not already exist.) > > There are magnet pedals, too. > http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bicycle_pedal#Magnet_pedals Far out. I guess they're also useful for holding your tools during roadside repairs.
 Signature "It is the role of librarians to keep government running in difficult times," replied Dramoren. "Librarians are the last line of defence against chaos." (McMullen 2001)
Panu - 16 Mar 2010 18:55 GMT > In article <e6psp5d2aqg4oe2rki6g02djiqopdlh...@4ax.com>, > [quoted text clipped - 44 lines] > > It's possible to have both. I don't think this will pacify Dan, but I think the reason why "Itämeri" was accepted, was probably the fact that it was an abstract concept which was not felt to be immediately related to the seas around Finland. For those concrete and tangible waters we have such names as Perämeri, Merenkurkku, Ahvenanmeri etc. Besides, seafaring and coastal life was a mostly Swedish-speaking business in Finland anyway.
Adam Funk - 16 Mar 2010 22:24 GMT >>I said that the resulting calque *in Finnish* was non-compositional >>(or more precisely, that the compositional reading of the phrase [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > denoted an ocean that was actually peaceful, I would have still called > it a non-compositional expression. Are there many rabbits left on Coney Island? To make matters worse, the name is (AIUI) calqued from Dutch with the same meaning.
 Signature Take it? I can't even parse it! [Kibo]
Peter T. Daniels - 16 Mar 2010 23:07 GMT > >>I said that the resulting calque *in Finnish* was non-compositional > >>(or more precisely, that the compositional reading of the phrase [quoted text clipped - 19 lines] > Are there many rabbits left on Coney Island? To make matters worse, > the name is (AIUI) calqued from Dutch with the same meaning. Is "coney" used as the name for a rabbit-like animal in England? It isn't in the US.
Brian M. Scott - 17 Mar 2010 00:09 GMT On Tue, 16 Mar 2010 15:07:52 -0700 (PDT), "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@verizon.net> wrote in <news:148cbd8f-ef5f-4d4d-80e9-183def1d3e31@k6g2000prg.googlegroups.com> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
[...]
>> Are there many rabbits left on Coney Island? To make >> matters worse, the name is (AIUI) calqued from Dutch >> with the same meaning.
> Is "coney" used as the name for a rabbit-like animal in > England? It isn't in the US. Why rabbit-LIKE? The primary meaning of the word *is* 'rabbit' (originally 'adult rabbit'), though it has also been applied to the hyrax.
Brian
Peter T. Daniels - 17 Mar 2010 04:15 GMT > On Tue, 16 Mar 2010 15:07:52 -0700 (PDT), "Peter T. Daniels" > <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote in [quoted text clipped - 12 lines] > 'rabbit' (originally 'adult rabbit'), though it has also > been applied to the hyrax. So the answer is Yes, it's used for the hyrax.
The one in Brooklyn is from the Dutch, not from the English. (It's not a calque.)
Brian M. Scott - 17 Mar 2010 09:20 GMT On Tue, 16 Mar 2010 20:15:15 -0700 (PDT), "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@verizon.net> wrote in <news:9d6719b7-5def-4743-afc0-9a13071e032e@g19g2000yqe.googlegroups.com> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
>> On Tue, 16 Mar 2010 15:07:52 -0700 (PDT), "Peter T. Daniels" >> <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote in >> <news:148cbd8f-ef5f-4d4d-80e9-183def1d3e31@k6g2000prg.googlegroups.com> >> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
>> [...]
>>>> Are there many rabbits left on Coney Island? To make >>>> matters worse, the name is (AIUI) calqued from Dutch >>>> with the same meaning.
>>> Is "coney" used as the name for a rabbit-like animal in >>> England? It isn't in the US.
>> Why rabbit-LIKE? The primary meaning of the word *is* >> 'rabbit' (originally 'adult rabbit'), though it has also >> been applied to the hyrax.
> So the answer is Yes, it's used for the hyrax. I no more answered your question than you just answered mine, and I have no idea to what extent it's in current English use.
[...]
Brian M. Scott - 17 Mar 2010 10:24 GMT On Tue, 16 Mar 2010 20:15:15 -0700 (PDT), "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@verizon.net> wrote in <news:9d6719b7-5def-4743-afc0-9a13071e032e@g19g2000yqe.googlegroups.com> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
[...]
> The one in Brooklyn is from the Dutch, not from the > English. (It's not a calque.) Since the Dutch was <Conyne Eylandt> (modern <konijn>), and since <Coney> appears quite early, a calque seems likely.
Brian
Adam Funk - 17 Mar 2010 12:25 GMT >> The one in Brooklyn is from the Dutch, not from the >> English. (It's not a calque.) > > Since the Dutch was <Conyne Eylandt> (modern <konijn>), and > since <Coney> appears quite early, a calque seems likely. Wikipedia says:
It is generally accepted by scholars[3][4] that Coney Island is an English adaptation of the Dutch name, Konijnen Eiland. Coney is also an obsolete and dialectal English word for rabbit. Coney came into the English language through Old French (Conil), which derives from the Latin word for rabbit, cuniculus. The English name "Conney Isle" was used on maps as early as 1690,[5] and by 1733 the modern spelling "Coney Island" was used.[6] J.F.W. des Barre's chart of New York harbor in the Atlantic Neptune, 1779,[7] and John Eddy map of 1811 both use the modern "Coney Island" spelling.[8]
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coney_Island#The_name
I haven't thoroughly checked the references, but they look reasonable.
 Signature History teaches that grave threats to liberty often come in times of urgency, when constitutional rights seem too extravagant to endure. (Thurgood Marshall)
James Hogg - 17 Mar 2010 13:16 GMT >>> The one in Brooklyn is from the Dutch, not from the >>> English. (It's not a calque.) [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > > I haven't thoroughly checked the references, but they look reasonable. There are several Coney Islands in Ireland, one of them made famous by Ivan Morrison: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coney_Island_%28song%29
 Signature James
Peter Duncanson (BrE) - 17 Mar 2010 15:02 GMT >>>> The one in Brooklyn is from the Dutch, not from the >>>> English. (It's not a calque.) [quoted text clipped - 20 lines] >Ivan Morrison: >http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coney_Island_%28song%29 Several of the Coney Islands in Ireland are townlands ("territorial divisions of land"). They may derive their names from islands without themselves being islands.
My first guess would be that "coney" is an anglicisation of an Irish word or phrase.
One Coney Island that is an island surrounded by water is in Lough Neagh, Northern Ireland. It is owned by the National Trust. As a member of the NT I suppose I "own" a handful of it. Perhaps I should visit it some time.
It "is considered to be one of the most westerly outposts of the Normans after their arrival in Ulster". The Norman connection opens up a slight possibility of that "Coney" being of rabbity origin: http://www.craigavon.gov.uk/environment/conservation/167-coney-island-conservati on.html
The Coney Island that fits the lyrics of Van Morrison's song is the Coney Island Caravan Park[1] which is advertised towards the end of this page: http://www.ardglass.net/accommodation.htm
It is at the bottom left of this Google map: http://tinyurl.com/yfjan8v
In the song he travels there via Ardglass (centre right) having come to that town along the Downpatrick Road.
[1] In this context a "caravan park" is not a place for parking a string of camels. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Caravan_park
In the UK and Ireland many caravan parks have static caravans owned by the park owner. These are rented out in the same way as other self-catering holiday accommodation. A couple of "for instances": http://www.holidayhomeparksnetwork.co.uk/towns/website/website.php?advertid=1131
 Signature Peter Duncanson, UK (in alt.usage.english)
James Hogg - 17 Mar 2010 15:38 GMT >>>>> The one in Brooklyn is from the Dutch, not from the >>>>> English. (It's not a calque.) [quoted text clipped - 25 lines] > My first guess would be that "coney" is an anglicisation of an Irish > word or phrase. It could well be the Irish "coinín" meaning rabbit, common in place-names such as Carrickconeen, Coneykeare/Connigar, Lisnagunnion etc.
> One Coney Island that is an island surrounded by water is in Lough > Neagh, Northern Ireland. It is owned by the National Trust. As a member [quoted text clipped - 26 lines] > A couple of "for instances": > http://www.holidayhomeparksnetwork.co.uk/towns/website/website.php?advertid=1131
 Signature James
Brian M. Scott - 17 Mar 2010 18:20 GMT On Wed, 17 Mar 2010 15:38:21 +0100, James Hogg <Jas.Hogg@gOUTmail.com> wrote in <news:hnqphb$4b5$1@news.eternal-september.org> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
>>>>>> The one in Brooklyn is from the Dutch, not from the >>>>>> English. (It's not a calque.)
>>>>> Since the Dutch was <Conyne Eylandt> (modern <konijn>), and >>>>> since <Coney> appears quite early, a calque seems likely.
>>>> Wikipedia says:
>>>> It is generally accepted by scholars[3][4] that Coney Island is an >>>> English adaptation of the Dutch name, Konijnen Eiland. Coney is [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] >>>> New York harbor in the Atlantic Neptune, 1779,[7] and John Eddy map >>>> of 1811 both use the modern "Coney Island" spelling.[8]
>>>> http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coney_Island#The_name
>>>> I haven't thoroughly checked the references, but they look reasonable.
>>> There are several Coney Islands in Ireland, one of them made famous by >>> Ivan Morrison:
>>> http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coney_Island_%28song%29
>> Several of the Coney Islands in Ireland are townlands ("territorial >> divisions of land"). They may derive their names from islands without >> themselves being islands.
>> My first guess would be that "coney" is an anglicisation of an Irish >> word or phrase.
> It could well be the Irish "coinín" meaning rabbit, Which, like Welsh <cwning> looks like a borrowing of Middle English <cunin> ~ <coning> 'coney'.
> common in place-names such as Carrickconeen, <Ceathrú Choinín> 'Rabbits' Quarter', with <ceathrú> for older <ceathramha>.
> Coneykeare/Connigar, <Coinicéar> 'Rabbit Warren', dialect variant <coinigéar>.
> Lisnagunnion etc. Are you sure? That's <Lios na gCoincheann>, which looks to me like 'Garth of the Dogsheads'.
Another is <Cunningburn>, <Sruth na gCoinín> 'Stream of the Rabbits'.
[...]
Brian
James Hogg - 18 Mar 2010 00:18 GMT > On Wed, 17 Mar 2010 15:38:21 +0100, James Hogg > <Jas.Hogg@gOUTmail.com> wrote in [quoted text clipped - 53 lines] > Are you sure? That's <Lios na gCoincheann>, which looks to > me like 'Garth of the Dogsheads'. Just quoting Joyce. He could be wrong.
> Another is <Cunningburn>, <Sruth na gCoinín> 'Stream of the > Rabbits'. That's an interesting example.
 Signature James
sjdevnull@yahoo.com - 17 Mar 2010 04:38 GMT > On Tue, 16 Mar 2010 15:07:52 -0700 (PDT), "Peter T. Daniels" > <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote in [quoted text clipped - 12 lines] > 'rabbit' (originally 'adult rabbit'), though it has also > been applied to the hyrax. I think the point is that "coney" isn't a (currently existing) word in AmE--whether it should mean "rabbit" or "rabbit-like" is irrelevant. It's long since passed out of the American vocabulary in any capacity.
If you ask an American what "coney" means, the only response other than "I don't know" that you're likely to get is "the name of that island in New York with the old roller coasters and hot dog companies and such".
R H Draney - 17 Mar 2010 06:42 GMT sjdevnull@yahoo.com filted:
>> On Tue, 16 Mar 2010 15:07:52 -0700 (PDT), "Peter T. Daniels" >> <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote in [quoted text clipped - 21 lines] >island in New York with the old roller coasters and hot dog companies >and such". Maybe it's passed out of the active vocabulary in New York, but most people around here would recognize the similarity to Spanish "conejo", which is definitely in regular use (I think it's even part of the Bugs Bunny's translated name)....
As for whether the creatures still live on Coney Island, I suspect the situation is similar to that of the definition of a suburb as "the place where they cut down all the trees and then name the streets after them"....r
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sjdevnull@yahoo.com - 17 Mar 2010 06:54 GMT > sjdevn...@yahoo.com filted: > [quoted text clipped - 28 lines] > definitely in regular use (I think it's even part of the Bugs Bunny's translated > name).... I'd believe that, but I also think more people would know what "conejo" means than would hazard a guess about "coney".
The fact that a fair number of people know enough Spanish to piece together a guess as to what coney means doesn't mean that it's a word in current AmE circulation (at least not to me).
Brian M. Scott - 17 Mar 2010 10:16 GMT On Tue, 16 Mar 2010 20:38:42 -0700 (PDT), in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
>> On Tue, 16 Mar 2010 15:07:52 -0700 (PDT), "Peter T. Daniels" >> <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote in >> <news:148cbd8f-ef5f-4d4d-80e9-183def1d3e31@k6g2000prg.googlegroups.com> >> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
>> [...]
>>>> Are there many rabbits left on Coney Island? To make >>>> matters worse, the name is (AIUI) calqued from Dutch >>>> with the same meaning.
>>> Is "coney" used as the name for a rabbit-like animal in >>> England? It isn't in the US.
>> Why rabbit-LIKE? The primary meaning of the word *is* >> 'rabbit' (originally 'adult rabbit'), though it has also >> been applied to the hyrax.
> I think the point is that "coney" isn't a (currently > existing) word in AmE-- I know what the point was. I wasn't commenting on it.
> whether it should mean "rabbit" or "rabbit-like" is > irrelevant. You're a very poor mind-reader. My interest was solely in why Peter chose 'rabbit-like animal' instead of 'rabbit'.
> It's long since passed out of the American vocabulary in > any capacity. If you mean that it's rare and largely restricted to passive vocabulary, you're right, but what you wrote is nonsense.
> If you ask an American what "coney" means, the only > response other than "I don't know" that you're likely to > get is "the name of that island in New York with the old > roller coasters and hot dog companies and such". You're certainly not likely to get the latter reponse if you pronounce the word properly, though those who have read 'The Pearl' or similar works might offer 'an affectionate diminutive of <c.nt>'.
John Atkinson - 17 Mar 2010 12:54 GMT >>> "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote : > [quoted text clipped - 37 lines] > Pearl' or similar works might offer 'an affectionate > diminutive of <c.nt>'. Isn't that 'cunny'? No, I haven't read those books, but that's what it is in my vocabulary, and that of most of other people.
Of course 'coney ' and 'cunny' might be homophones in NY dialect for all I know.
J.
Peter T. Daniels - 17 Mar 2010 14:23 GMT > > "sjdevn...@yahoo.com" <sjdevn...@yahoo.com> wrote: > >>> "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote : [quoted text clipped - 44 lines] > Of course 'coney ' and 'cunny' might be homophones in NY dialect for all > I know. You'd have to find someone who uses the latter at all, and the former as anything but a geographic name.
Brian M. Scott - 17 Mar 2010 18:26 GMT On Wed, 17 Mar 2010 11:54:25 GMT, John Atkinson <johnacko@bigpond.com> wrote in <news:Rp3on.13491$pv.10099@news-server.bigpond.net.au> in sci.lang,alt.usage.english:
[...]
>> You're certainly not likely to get the latter reponse if >> you pronounce the word properly, though those who have >> read 'The Pearl' or similar works might offer 'an >> affectionate diminutive of <c.nt>'.
> Isn't that 'cunny'? [...] Yes. The words were/are homophones, though <coney> is now more often pronounced to rhyme with <bony>. 'Properly' was a bit tongue-in-cheek, but I see that M-W OnLine and AHD3 do still give both pronunciations.
Brian
Peter T. Daniels - 17 Mar 2010 14:23 GMT > On Tue, 16 Mar 2010 20:38:42 -0700 (PDT), > "sjdevn...@yahoo.com" <sjdevn...@yahoo.com> wrote in [quoted text clipped - 24 lines] > You're a very poor mind-reader. My interest was solely in > why Peter chose 'rabbit-like animal' instead of 'rabbit'. Because the nitpickers like you and ERK would pounce if I didn't qualify everything I write.
Does this indicate that you are now exiting logical-mathematician mode and are willing to read colloquial English as colloquial English and not as an exercise in either logic or computerese?
But I can't stop qualifying everything until I get a similar pledge from ERK and the other nitpickers.
> > It's long since passed out of the American vocabulary in > > any capacity. [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > Pearl' or similar works might offer 'an affectionate > diminutive of <c.nt>'.- Adam Funk - 17 Mar 2010 12:27 GMT >> Are there many rabbits left on Coney Island? To make matters worse, >> the name is (AIUI) calqued from Dutch with the same meaning. > > Is "coney" used as the name for a rabbit-like animal in England? It > isn't in the US. I can't think when I last heard it, or why I know the word. I suspect it's a bit better known in the UK than in the USA, but I'm not sure. (The only reason I thought about the name is that I just finished reading _The Electric Michelangelo_, in which Coney Island figures prominently.)
The first definition in the OED, with the most citations, is "rabbit" itself. Curiously, it doesn't have any citations after C.19, but it does say "Still retained in the Statutes, and in more or less familiar use with game-keepers, poachers, game-dealers and cooks: in market reports, now usually meaning a wild rabbit."
There is a definition "In O.T. used to translate Hebrew shāphān, a small pachyderm (Hyrax Syriacus), living in caves and clefts of the rocks in Palestine." That phrasing suggests to me that the word was adapted because there wasn't an English word for that animal. There are four citations from translations of the OT (the 1885 one says "Lev. xi. 7 The Coney [marg. The Hyrax Syriacus or rock-badger.]", so there's a word for it now), one that refers to the Bible, and one that refers to "The Modern Damans or Conies".
(There's also "Applied also locally to the Cape Hyrax or Das (Hyrax Capensis), and to the Pika or Calling Hare (Lagomys princeps) of the Rocky Mountains; also with qualifications to other small quadrupeds.")
 Signature Physics is like sex. Sure, it may give some practical results, but that's not why we do it. [Richard Feynman]
Peter T. Daniels - 17 Mar 2010 14:24 GMT > >> Are there many rabbits left on Coney Island? To make matters worse, > >> the name is (AIUI) calqued from Dutch with the same meaning. [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > The first definition in the OED, with the most citations, is "rabbit" > itself. Curiously, it doesn't have any citations after C.19, but it Um, because that's when that fascicle was published?
> does say "Still retained in the Statutes, and in more or less familiar > use with game-keepers, poachers, game-dealers and cooks: in market [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > Physics is like sex. Sure, it may give some practical results, > but that's not why we do it. [Richard Feynman] Adam Funk - 17 Mar 2010 18:07 GMT >> >> Are there many rabbits left on Coney Island? To make matters worse, >> >> the name is (AIUI) calqued from Dutch with the same meaning. [quoted text clipped - 12 lines] > > Um, because that's when that fascicle was published? That entry is marked "SECOND EDITION 1989" in the on-line OED!
 Signature History teaches that grave threats to liberty often come in times of urgency, when constitutional rights seem too extravagant to endure. (Thurgood Marshall)
Peter T. Daniels - 17 Mar 2010 18:30 GMT > >> >> Are there many rabbits left on Coney Island? To make matters worse, > >> >> the name is (AIUI) calqued from Dutch with the same meaning. [quoted text clipped - 14 lines] > > That entry is marked "SECOND EDITION 1989" in the on-line OED! Nu, was there any reason to change it?
Adam Funk - 18 Mar 2010 15:11 GMT >> >> The first definition in the OED, with the most citations, is "rabbit" >> >> itself. Curiously, it doesn't have any citations after C.19, but it [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > Nu, was there any reason to change it? Hmm. I had assumed that the label meant there had been some changes in the entry since the first edition (in which case it would be curious if the citations had not been extended) but
http://dictionary.oed.com/help/display/earlier.html
suggests that the on-line entries are all taken from the 1989 edition at the earliest, so it may not be possible to tell from an on-line entry whether there were changes between the first and second.
 Signature Do you know what they do to book thieves up at Santa Rita? http://www.shigabooks.com/indeces/bookhunter.html
Peter T. Daniels - 18 Mar 2010 15:47 GMT > >> >> The first definition in the OED, with the most citations, is "rabbit" > >> >> itself. Curiously, it doesn't have any citations after C.19, but it [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > in the entry since the first edition (in which case it would be > curious if the citations had not been extended) but Presumably the pronunciation has been changed from Sweet's system to IPA.
> http://dictionary.oed.com/help/display/earlier.html > > suggests that the on-line entries are all taken from the 1989 edition > at the earliest, so it may not be possible to tell from an on-line > entry whether there were changes between the first and second. One could simply look in the print edition on one's shelf. The last entries under CONY mng. 1 appear to be 1883 and (a mention, not a use) 1890 (but I didn't fish out the magnifying glass to be certain), with no more in a non-transferred sense in the Supplement.
Adam Funk - 19 Mar 2010 11:27 GMT ["SECOND EDITION 1989"]
>> Hmm. I had assumed that the label meant there had been some changes >> in the entry since the first edition (in which case it would be >> curious if the citations had not been extended) but > > Presumably the pronunciation has been changed from Sweet's system to > IPA. AFAICT the entries labelled "second edition" have the pronunciation in () whereas the later revised ones use //. They all look like IPA to me. One of the help pages [1] says "The pronunciation system used in revised material differs in some respects from that used in the Second Edition. In addition, the revised material includes not only British but also U.S. pronunciations.", but from looking at the two keys (which are arranged differently, so hard to compare exactly), I suspect the difference is mainly that the newer edition entries have broader geographical coverage.
[1] http://dictionary.oed.com/help/pronunciation.html
>> http://dictionary.oed.com/help/display/earlier.html >> [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > 1890 (but I didn't fish out the magnifying glass to be certain), with > no more in a non-transferred sense in the Supplement. FSVO "one" (I don't have a printed copy).
 Signature No right of private conversation was enumerated in the Constitution. I don't suppose it occurred to anyone at the time that it could be prevented. [Whitfield Diffie]
Harlan Messinger - 12 Feb 2010 20:20 GMT > In my opinion, it seems silly to calque a word into another language > when the calquer knows perfectly well that the original term was a > misnomer. Does anyone else agree? I mean, like -- doesn't it just > make the misnomer worse? Define "worse". Does it cause food shortages? Hurricanes? The proliferation of insect-borne viruses?
You could refer to the last thread you started on this topic and figure out from that whether anyone else agrees.
Fred - 12 Feb 2010 20:41 GMT > In my opinion, it seems silly to calque a word into another language > when the calquer knows perfectly well that the original term was a > misnomer. Does anyone else agree? I mean, like -- doesn't it just > make the misnomer worse? Like -- maybe.
Adam Funk - 12 Feb 2010 23:29 GMT > In my opinion, it seems silly to calque a word into another language > when the calquer knows perfectly well that the original term was a > misnomer. Does anyone else agree? I mean, like -- doesn't it just > make the misnomer worse? Hmm...
"Oxygen" is a misnomer, of course.
But are "Eindruck" and "Ausdruck" misnomers, or just metaphors as reasonable as the original "impressio(n(em))" and "expressio(n(em))"?
 Signature Some say the world will end in fire; some say in segfaults. [XKCD 312]
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