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"In line with" (British-American translation)

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parrishioner - 18 May 2005 00:32 GMT
I am an American whose company has just been acquired by a UK-based
company, and a large part of my current job is to "translate" our
marketing materials from UK English into US English, and vice versa. At
the moment I'm interested in understanding the distinctions in meaning
of the phrase "in line with" as used in British versus American
English.

I've borrowed (with slight changes) some examples from the web:

1. "The company's first quarter results released earlier today are IN
LINE WITH full-year forecasts."

Here we have a sense of earnings being *approximately equal to*
forecasts. We could call this quantitative accordance. This would be
commonly heard and accurately understood in both the UK and the US.

2. "She also announced moves to toughen up hygiene standards in
hospitals, bringing them IN LINE WITH rules governing the food
industry."

Here the meaning is closer to *obedient to* or *in agreement with* or
*compliant with* or *subservient to*. We might call this qualitative
accordance. It seems like this sense would be less commonly heard in
the US than in the UK, although it would be accurately understood in
both. (If used in US, the phrase here would undoubtedly be "into line
with")

3. "The rate of the interest applicable to your loan will fluctuate IN
LINE WITH changes to the variable interest rate."

Here we mean *along with* or *at the same time and in the same
direction as*. Let's call it a spatial/temporal accordance. This is
definitely a UK-only usage, although Americans would probably
understand it correctly.

So far this is all pretty straightforward. What I'm wondering about is
this type of usage:

4. "IN LINE WITH major changes in medical education over the last
decade, the book stresses the importance of the community and the
health of the population which play an integral part in becoming a good
doctor."

This I would also classify as a non-US English usage - to my American
ears it sounds vague and imprecise. The phrase seems to have one of the
following meanings...

*concurrent with* (temporal/simultaneous)
*as a result of* (temporal/causal)
*in addition to* (temporal/sequence ambiguous)
*mindful of* (not sure how to classify this one)

My hunch is that *mindful of* is closest to the intended meaning. But I
also suspect it could be a combination of meanings.

Can anyone shed some light on this topic?
JC Dill - 18 May 2005 01:25 GMT
>I am an American whose company has just been acquired by a UK-based
>company, and a large part of my current job is to "translate" our
>marketing materials from UK English into US English, and vice versa.

You may find it helpful to know that this process commonly goes by the
name of "localization".  

jc
Spehro Pefhany - 18 May 2005 01:33 GMT
>>I am an American whose company has just been acquired by a UK-based
>>company, and a large part of my current job is to "translate" our
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>
>jc

Even in the case of changing *to* US English? I thought that was
called "globalization".

Best regards,
Spehro Pefhany
Signature

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Mike Barnes - 18 May 2005 10:12 GMT
In alt.usage.english, Spehro Pefhany wrote:

>>>I am an American whose company has just been acquired by a UK-based
>>>company, and a large part of my current job is to "translate" our
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>
>Even in the case of changing *to* US English?

That's "localisation".

Signature

Mike Barnes
Cheshire, England

Matti Lamprhey - 18 May 2005 12:22 GMT
"Mike Barnes" <may2005@mikebarnes.fsnet.co.uk> wrote...
> In alt.usage.english, Spehro Pefhany wrote:
> >>
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>
> That's "localisation".

In my experience the term isn't used to refer to a single instance of
translation.

Take for example a piece of software which has been written for a single
market, the UK for example, and which is now to be marketed more widely.
The program is first _globalised_, which involves putting all the
market-specific stuff into a separate "resource file" and modifying the
program to retrieve its contents at runtime.  Then the _localisation_
phase can occur everytime a new market is prepared, and this involves
creating a new version of the resource file in French, US English, etc.

Matti
John Dean - 18 May 2005 12:51 GMT
> In alt.usage.english, Spehro Pefhany wrote:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>
> That's "localisation".

Izzenit "colonisation"?
Signature

John Dean
Oxford

Mike Lyle - 18 May 2005 13:21 GMT
> In alt.usage.english, Spehro Pefhany wrote:
>>
>>>> I am an American whose company has just been acquired by a
UK-based
>>>> company, and a large part of my current job is to "translate"
our
>>>> marketing materials from UK English into US English, and vice
>>>> versa.
>>>
>>> You may find it helpful to know that this process commonly goes
by
>>> the name of "localization".
>>
>> Even in the case of changing *to* US English?
>
> That's "localisation".

Either way, it's a dashed bad word, since it already means something
very different which might often appear in the same context. But I
have no single-word alternative to offer.

Signature

Mike.

JC Dill - 19 May 2005 15:50 GMT
>In alt.usage.english, Spehro Pefhany wrote:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
>>
>>Even in the case of changing *to* US English?

Yes.  When a US publisher goes to print an article that was first
printed in the UK, they typically have the article localized for US
readers.  Kilos are converted to pounds, colour is changed to color,
the storage area in a vehicle is changed from boot to trunk, etc.

>That's "localisation".

I don't know if you are referring to a pondial spelling difference or
not.  My choice of spelling was influenced by the frequency with which
the word is spelled on the net.  I used the more common spelling since
it is ~10 times more likely to aid the OP when searching for
localization resources on the net:

<http://www.google.com/search?q=localization>

~8,510,000 results

<http://www.google.com/search?q=localisation>

~921,000 results.

jc
credoquaabsurdum - 20 May 2005 02:26 GMT
(on localisation/localization)

> I don't know if you are referring to a pondial spelling difference or
> not.  My choice of spelling was influenced by the frequency with which
> the word is spelled on the net.  I used the more common spelling since
> it is ~10 times more likely to aid the OP when searching for
> localization resources on the net:

What does the word "pondial" mean?
Skitt - 20 May 2005 02:38 GMT
> (on localisation/localization)
>
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>
> What does the word "pondial" mean?

It refers to the great pond -- the Atlantic ocean.  It separates some of us
from the others, physically and in language usage.
Signature

Skitt (in Hayward, California)
www.geocities.com/opus731/

Peter Duncanson - 20 May 2005 12:36 GMT
>> (on localisation/localization)
>>
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
>It refers to the great pond -- the Atlantic ocean.  It separates some of us
>from the others, physically and in language usage.

Which leads to such words as Leftpondia - countries to the west of the
Atlantic; and Rightpondia - countries to the east of the Atlantic.
Signature

Peter Duncanson
UK (posting from a.u.e)

Mike Lyle - 20 May 2005 14:00 GMT
[...]
>>> What does the word "pondial" mean?
>>
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> Which leads to such words as Leftpondia - countries to the west of the
> Atlantic; and Rightpondia - countries to the east of the Atlantic.

And also the self-explanatory "Antipondean".

Signature

Mike.

credoquaabsurdum - 18 May 2005 03:03 GMT
> I am an American whose company has just been acquired by a UK-based
> company, and a large part of my current job is to "translate" our
> marketing materials from UK English into US English, and vice versa. At
> the moment I'm interested in understanding the distinctions in meaning
> of the phrase "in line with" as used in British versus American
> English.

In preface: this is not going to be a fun one.

I can tell you that "in line with" does not appear in the OED Online or
either of my primary paper usage manuals, Merriam Wester's Dictionary
of English Usage and The New Fowler's. Nor does it appear in Chicago or
the Oxford Guide to English Usage. My Oxford Reference Online access
gives me nothing on a formal explanation of "in line with," with the
following reference works searched:

The Oxford American Dictionary of Current English
The Concise Oxford English Dictionary
The Oxford American Thesaurus of Current English
The Oxford Paperback Thesaurus

The Oxford Dictionary of Abbreviations
The Concise Oxford Dictionary of English Etymology
The Oxford Dictionary of English Grammar
Concise Oxford Companion to the English Language
A New Dictionary of Eponyms
The Oxford Essential Dictionary of Foreign Terms in English
The Oxford Dictionary of Idioms
The Concise Oxford Dictionary of Linguistics
The Oxford Dictionary of Proverbs
The Oxford Dictionary of American Usage and Style
Pocket Fowler's Modern English Usage

Free Ask Oxford resources have also failed to nail down an answer.

Bartleby.com failed to get anything on "in line with" in Dictionaries
and English Usage.

Last but not least, I ran through my Merriam Webster's Collegiate
(11th) and Merriam Webster's online.

Conclusion, we have nothing from a considerable number of formal usage
writers, lexicographers and other specialists.

Slightly more spurious sources would include:

http://www.answers.com/in+line+with&r=67
http://encarta.msn.com/dictionary_1861698673_561533461/nextpage.html

Basically, this seems to be an uninvestigated, new point of English
usage.

I am an American and I have been living in Europe for the last five
years.
Here's my best personal stab at your questions.

> I've borrowed (with slight changes) some examples from the web:

> 1. "The company's first quarter results released earlier today are IN
> LINE WITH full-year forecasts."
>
> Here we have a sense of earnings being *approximately equal to*
> forecasts. We could call this quantitative accordance. This would be
> commonly heard and accurately understood in both the UK and the US.

Agreed.

> 2. "She also announced moves to toughen up hygiene standards in
> hospitals, bringing them IN LINE WITH rules governing the food
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> both. (If used in US, the phrase here would undoubtedly be "into line
> with")

I would say that "compliant to" is the closest meaning. You also have a
point about "into line with," but without a corpora search on American
English we really can't be sure. "Qualitative accordance may be a
strong characterization, as we'll see in a bit."

> 3. "The rate of the interest applicable to your loan will fluctuate IN
> LINE WITH changes to the variable interest rate."
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> definitely a UK-only usage, although Americans would probably
> understand it correctly.

Precisely. Americans would seem to be far more likely to say "in
accordance with" in such situations.

> So far this is all pretty straightforward. What I'm wondering about is
> this type of usage:
[quoted text clipped - 15 lines]
> My hunch is that *mindful of* is closest to the intended meaning. But I
> also suspect it could be a combination of meanings.

Once agaon, I think you have discovered a significant usage question
here, parrishioner. I disagree with you that "mindful of" would
characterize the meaning as well as "in unquestioning acceptance of"
here. This returns us to Usage Type 2 and the problem with thinking of
it in terms of simple qualitative accordance. "In line with" in this
understanding inherits a vague sense of toadying to developments in the
field at large, as if the direction of the field at large over the last
decade was above suspicion. It looks like a clever way to gain an
argument from authority.

I may be able to root up a few more reference works that will give us a
better idea of what's going on.

--Good luck, parrishioner. This is an important post.
freddyvessant@gmail.com - 18 May 2005 06:48 GMT
> I am an American whose company has just been acquired by a UK-based
> company, and a large part of my current job is to "translate" our
[quoted text clipped - 52 lines]
>
> Can anyone shed some light on this topic?

Aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaarrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrgggghhhhhhhhh

You have to be some sort of c.nt to write paragraph (4) and twice the
f.cking c.nt not to be able to tell what it means: having the same
underlying understanding of how things are as those changes had.

Freddy
Don Phillipson - 18 May 2005 13:03 GMT
> a large part of my current job is to "translate" our
> marketing materials from UK English into US English, and vice versa. At
[quoted text clipped - 37 lines]
> health of the population which play an integral part in becoming a good
> doctor."

These examples document interestingly two different
sorts of phenomenon.

Business writing now displays a distinct preference
for longer words and more words than for short phrasing.
No. 3 could just as well read "will vary as the interest rate
changes."   No. 1 could read "results released earlier today
conform to full-year forecasts."

As linguistic skills decline, there is a temptation to use
the current buzzword wherever it might fit, because of
tacit associations of meaning, as between: in line with,
align, party line, toe the line, line up with, and so on.

I suggest focusing on the individual phrase is likely
to mislead us, because of these two phenomena.
Instead of seeking to analyse buzzwords and their
variants, it would be faster to focus on the function
of actual sentences, e.g. No. 4:
> 4. "IN LINE WITH major changes in medical education over the last
> decade, the book stresses the importance of the community and the
> health of the population which play an integral part in becoming a good
> doctor."

First we can make it shorter:
Following major changes in medical education over the last
decade, this book emphasizes the community environment
and local health conditions play an integral part in becoming a good
doctor.
We then notice the sentence is probably balderdash:

1.  The reference to recent med school changes is
solely ornamental.
2.  The sentence identifies two phenomena, "community and the
health of the population," which are themselves dissimilar and
probably different in philosophical type.  Both are quite real:
but community is wholly undefined (e.g. whether the writer means
social relationships or material conditions) and health is something
lived by individuals but usually measured only in aggregate
indicators (statistics about communities.)
3.  The main verb of the sentence insists that medical training
("becoming a good doctor") is not merely influenced by these
two phenomena:  the writer claims they are functionally essential
("integral") i.e. their absence makes it difficult or impossible to
become a good doctor.  This seems to be practically meaningless.
(No medical school could be void of "communiitiy" and "health.")

The original sentence reads like a blurb.  If its
purpose is to sell this book, I suggest it be
rewritten.  (If the book were written so imprecisely
as the blurb, perhaps we should write either both
or neither.)

At all events, study of the phrase "in line with" seems
unlikely to help.  This is why I prefer the functional
approach, precision so far as possible, and the
omission of needless words.

Signature

Don Phillipson
Carlsbad Springs
(Ottawa, Canada)

Linz - 18 May 2005 14:13 GMT
> 4. "IN LINE WITH major changes in medical education over the last
> decade, the book stresses the importance of the community and the
[quoted text clipped - 14 lines]
>
> Can anyone shed some light on this topic?

Over the last decade, medical education has changed so that it now
stresses the importance of community care and community health (i.e.
it's not /all/ about the hospitals). This book does the same thing
(it's not uncommon for textbooks to lag behind actual practice).

So I'd say this was a *concurrent with* meaning.
parrishioner - 18 May 2005 18:57 GMT
Thanks everybody for the great replies. The general consensus is that
#4 is a case of sloppy writing that is trying to appear grandiose. As
for ascertaining its intended meaning, there are a number of different
theories...

general environmental
*in unquestioning acceptance of* (credoquaabsurdum)
*having the same underlying understanding of how things are as*
(freddyvessant)
*mindful of* (parrishioner)

temporal/simultaneous
*concurrent with* (Linz)
*concurrent with* (Gerald Harper)

temporal/weak causality
*reflecting* / *in accordance with* / causality-wise somewhere between
*concurrent with* and *as a result of* (James Lee)
*following* (Don Phillipson)

...but no one solid answer. I'm inclined to agree with Don Phillipson
that study of the phrase itself is unlikely to reveal a clear sense of
its meaning, since the author herself was probably unaware of what
exactly she meant to say. I'm going to chalk it up as a good example of
sloppy writing, BrE-style.

I was hesitant to include the actual example I've been asked to
translate/localize for work (because it's so fraught with other
issues), but here it is for your amusement:

5. "In line with significant changes in the way legal firms approach
the key services supporting fee earners over the previous two years,
[the firm] was committed to considering ways to improve service
delivery."

You can see how any of the suggested meanings could fit in this
situation. Now my mission is to track down the author and clarify the
intended meaning.
Mike Lyle - 18 May 2005 20:54 GMT
[...]
> 5. "In line with significant changes in the way legal firms approach
> the key services supporting fee earners over the previous two years,
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> situation. Now my mission is to track down the author and clarify the
> intended meaning.

Before you go, you do know what a "fee earner" is, don't you? I
happen to know because my solicitor is one: she's "in" the firm, and
of course fully qualified, but not a partner.

Signature

Mike.

Areff - 18 May 2005 20:38 GMT
["Followup-To:" header set to alt.usage.english.]
> Before you go, you do know what a "fee earner" is, don't you? I
> happen to know because my solicitor is one: she's "in" the firm, and
> of course fully qualified, but not a partner.

What's the significance of the term?  I presume that a partner in a firm
of solicitors can bill a client for fees (perhaps in the name of the
firm).  PD: How is a partner *not* a "fee earner"?  
parrishioner - 18 May 2005 21:24 GMT
Thanks - I wasn't aware of this distinction. The equivalent term in the
US is "associate," which describes an individual who is licensed to
practice law, represent clients, etc., but does not have an equity
stake in the firm. There's also a position titled "paralegal," which is
someone who has received a lot of legal training but does not have a
license to practice.

Would a partner or paralegal (I assume there's some equivalent term)
ever be described as a fee earner?
Paul Wolff - 18 May 2005 23:13 GMT
>Thanks - I wasn't aware of this distinction. The equivalent term in the
>US is "associate," which describes an individual who is licensed to
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>Would a partner or paralegal (I assume there's some equivalent term)
>ever be described as a fee earner?

No doubt practices vary, but in my world fee earners are those whose
time may be billed to clients.
Signature

Paul
In bocca al Lupo!

freddyvessant@gmail.com - 19 May 2005 07:39 GMT
> Thanks everybody for the great replies. The general consensus is that
> #4 is a case of sloppy writing that is trying to appear grandiose. As
[quoted text clipped - 30 lines]
> [the firm] was committed to considering ways to improve service
> delivery."

Aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaarrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrggggggggggggggggggggggggggggggggggggggggggghhhhhhhhhhhhhhh

Sweet f.cking Jesus. Spare us. Just take us now. "In keeping with". For
f.ck's sake, who is employing this moron? The meaning is crystal clear.
There have been significant changes. The firm is going along with them.
So it's committed itself to thinking about how it can improve "service
delivery".

It's almost enough to have one demand that Americans all learn French
and plague them with their utter inability to come to grips with our
language.

F.
Josh Hill - 19 May 2005 14:24 GMT
>> Thanks everybody for the great replies. The general consensus is that
>> #4 is a case of sloppy writing that is trying to appear grandiose. As
[quoted text clipped - 46 lines]
>and plague them with their utter inability to come to grips with our
>language.

Well, y'know, it ain't like me to be sayin' this, y'understand -- I
mean, the way I look at it, grammer's like a porker, what's mighty
good to eat no matter whether it's pink or black or what the note it
squeals at.

But Festus mah mule, now Festus is one o' them sticklers when it comes
to style and stuff -- and Festus done tol' me he ain't gonna plow a
single furrow till I tell you you done used "them" wrong in that next
after the penultimate sentence o' you'r'n. An' as Festus tole me,
that's cause you ain't never mentioned the French themselves, jes'
that furny talk they use in restraunts.

Signature

Josh

Lanarcam - 19 May 2005 14:58 GMT
> >> Thanks everybody for the great replies. The general consensus is that
> >> #4 is a case of sloppy writing that is trying to appear grandiose. As
[quoted text clipped - 58 lines]
> that's cause you ain't never mentioned the French themselves, jes'
> that furny talk they use in restraunts.

This is perhaps an acute symptom of infoxification;)
parrishioner - 19 May 2005 14:31 GMT
*Bites tongue*

I get the general meaning, old chap. It's the specific one that
interests me.

Your suggestion of "In keeping with" isn't any help - you've just
replaced one piece of fluff with another.

We still need to determine whether the writer is implying any
causality, and to determine the sequence of the changes at large in
relation to the changes being made at the firm. Are they happening
simultaneously, one after the other, one because of the other, or what.

But haven't I already made that clear?
John Swindle - 21 May 2005 13:24 GMT
> *Bites tongue*
>
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
>
> But haven't I already made that clear?

The distinctions that you wish to make were not made in the
original.  If they are not required by the target language, you
may safely dispense with them.
freddyvessant@gmail.com - 22 May 2005 07:57 GMT
> *Bites tongue*
>
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> Your suggestion of "In keeping with" isn't any help - you've just
> replaced one piece of fluff with another.

Why are people employing this guy to translate stuff into Merkin if
English isn't his first language?

Freddy
parrishioner - 22 May 2005 16:17 GMT
My suspicion is that I am a sort of charity project, that management
find my dull-wittedness to be quaint and disarming, and that they know
I will remain quiet and gruntled if tasked with decoding their "secret
messages" for my fellow unwashed brethren.
 
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