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Diphthongs, syllables, and metrical beats

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James Taylor - 25 Feb 2004 03:23 GMT
To my consternation, my comprehension of the concepts listed in
the subject line has been questioned, and I consequently crave
corroboration from the cognoscenti. Please consider the
following content and confirm or confute my convictions.
Thanks. ;-)

I'm sure we all intuitively know what a syllable is, but the
precise definition of the word has become important to my
understanding of poetic metre. For instance, does a diphthong
split a vowel sound into two syllables or not, and is that
necessarily two metrical beats?

The definitions I found are:

syllable: a unit of spoken language consisting of a single
         uninterrupted sound formed by a vowel, diphthong,
         or syllabic consonant alone, or by any of these
         sounds preceded, followed, or surrounded by one or
         more consonants.

diphthong: a complex speech sound or glide that begins with
         one vowel and smoothly changes to another vowel
         within the same syllable.

Both of those definitions seem to me to be saying that a
diphthong does *not* split a syllable in the middle of the
vowel sound. However, when I show people the list of words
below they claim that most of them have two syllables!
Now obviously, most laymen have not taken the trouble to
look up the precise definition of syllable and diphthong
so I am perhaps expecting too much of them to get it right.
Another point is that, within metrical poetry, many of these
words would more naturally fit across two beats than one,
so perhaps people are confusing syllables with beats.

In the list below I have indicated whether I think each word
contains a diphthong, how many syllables it is, and how many
beats I think more naturally fit for the purposes of poetic
metre. Bear in mind, though, that the number of beats is a
very subjective thing dependent upon which metre is being
used (iambic, anapaestic, etc), where in the metrical
pattern the word falls, the degree of emphasis desired, and
even the regional accent of the speaker. Therefore different
situations would require a different allocation of beats.
If anyone can help me with the two that I was not sure
about, or can correct any of the others, then please do.

Word    Diph?   Sylls   Beats
~~~~    ~~~~~   ~~~~~   ~~~~~
bias    y       1       2
boas    y       1       2
coed    no?     2?      2
coin    y       1       1
cues    y       1       1
dial    y       1       1
dias    y       1       2
diet    y       1       2
dual    y       1       1
feud    y       1       1
fuel    y       1       1
hues    y       1       1
kiev    y       1       2
leon    y       1       2
leos    y       1       2
lion    y       1       1
moet    y       1       2
neon    y       1       2
noel    no?     2?      2       (as in Christmas)
noel    y       1       1       (as in Edmonds)
poem    y       1       1
poet    y       1       2
quad    y       1       1
quid    y       1       1
quip    y       1       1
quit    y       1       1
quiz    y       1       1
riot    y       1       2
ruin    y       1       2
suez    y       1       2
vial    y       1       1
zion    y       1       2

By now you might be wondering what triggered me to look into
this in such depth. Well, in uk.rec.humour, someone posted
the following haiku:

   To Write a poem                   (4 syllables)
   Of Seventeen syllables            (7 syllables)
   is very diffi...                  (5 syllables)
                                     (4+7+5 = 16)

So I pointed out that the joke didn't work if it was actually
possible to complete the poem in seventeen syllables. Knowing
that the haiku form expects 5, 7, and 5 syllables in that order,
I could see that the first line was a syllable short, and from
that I realised that "poem" was the point of contention.
Now, the way I pronounce "poem" is more naturally a single
beat but, even assuming the author wanted to stretch it to two
beats, it is still a single syllable.

Anyway, several people disagreed with me, as you can see:
http://groups.google.com/groups?th=a64a610835129fe2

Would the good people of this group mind giving me some
validation to ameliorate that rejection? Thanks.

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James Taylor, Cheltenham, Gloucestershire, UK.       PGP key: 3FBE1BF9
To protect against spam, the address in the "From:" header is not valid.
In any case, you should reply to the group so that everyone can benefit.
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Mike Stevens - 25 Feb 2004 07:22 GMT
> I'm sure we all intuitively know what a syllable is, but the
> precise definition of the word has become important to my
[quoted text clipped - 24 lines]
> words would more naturally fit across two beats than one,
> so perhaps people are confusing syllables with beats.

In your list, I personally would say that most of them don't contain
diphthongs, but two separate vowel sounds.  That's most obvious in what
you write as "coed", which I'd write "co-ed" (unless there's a quite
separate word that I don't know).

The only words in your list where I'd agree that there is a diphthong
are "coin" and probably "feud", and I class both of those as
monosyllables.

"Cues" I'd interpret as a single vowel-sound which happens to be written
as two letters - it rhymes with "booze".

I find it hard to make up my mind about "hues", because the written form
and the spoken form have so little in common.  I think that in speech it
probably does contain a diphthong, but it's not the u-e dipthong
suggested by the written form, but more of a y-u diphthong. (My wife has
just usefully pointed out "You can hear that when people drop their
aitches  -  they say 'yooze' not 'ooze'".)

I'd not class any of the "qu-" words a diphthongs, since I'd interpret
the "u" is each not as a vowel but as a modified to the consonant "q".

The two examples of "noel" are interesting.  In its Christmas meaning,
one alternative (now archaic) spelling was "nowell" which clearly
suggests to me that it has two separate syllables. Its use as a forename
is presumably derived from the Christmas meaning but has a different
stress-pattern.  An interesting observation here is that the late Sir
Noel Coward in his later years insisted that his first name be spelled
with a diaeroesis  (sp?)  -  two little dots  -  over the "e" to make it
clear that he thought of it as two separate syllables.

--
Mike Stevens, narrowboat Felis Catus II
web site www.mike-stevens.co.uk
Old teachers never die, they simply lose their class.
David - 25 Feb 2004 08:28 GMT
> "Cues" I'd interpret as a single vowel-sound which happens to be
> written as two letters - it rhymes with "booze".

Depends where you hail from. The pronunciation guides of dictionaries
notwithstanding, booze rimes with lose for me but cues rimes with mews,
as does clues, as does its original spelling: clews.

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Dave Fawthrop - 25 Feb 2004 08:11 GMT
| syllable: a unit of spoken language consisting of a single
|           uninterrupted sound formed by a vowel, diphthong,
|           or syllabic consonant alone, or by any of these
|           sounds preceded, followed, or surrounded by one or
|           more consonants.

The syllable in the English, American, Strine, Indian is a completely
movable feast because of the differences in pronunciation of these diverse
languages.

Metrical beats are even more movable as can be heard in a majority of
poems/songs where the poet/songwriter adds or subtracts beats to suit the
artistic interpretation of the work.

Hyphenation is a form of syllablisation, for a detailed treatment of the
problem see "Hyphenation by Ronald C McIntosh on our web site below.

Signature

Dave Fawthrop <hyphen hyphenologist co uk>
<http://www.hyphenologist.co.uk>

Matthew Huntbach - 25 Feb 2004 09:50 GMT

> The syllable in the English, American, Strine, Indian is a completely
> movable feast because of the differences in pronunciation of these diverse
> languages.

For example, I pronounce the word "mayor" as a monosyllable, homophonous
with "mare". But I find other English people pronounce it as two
syllables - "may-or". I think my pronunciation is the more usual one,
but I checked in my dictioanry and it told me the latter was the correct
one.

Matthew Huntbach
Dave Fawthrop - 25 Feb 2004 11:12 GMT
|  
| > The syllable in the English, American, Strine, Indian is a completely
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
| but I checked in my dictioanry and it told me the latter was the correct
| one.

Lexicographers, who write *English* dictionaries only describe the language
as they find it.    Thus no dictionary is *correct*, it is only what the
lexicographer/editor found the language to be at the time they wrote the
dictionary.     If you compare dictionaries you will find as many opinions
as dictionaries.

French and German on the other hand dictionaries describe the *official*
language.

Signature

Dave Fawthrop <dave hyphenologist  co  uk>
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Matthew Huntbach - 25 Feb 2004 11:57 GMT
> | For example, I pronounce the word "mayor" as a monosyllable, homophonous
> | with "mare". But I find other English people pronounce it as two
> | syllables - "may-or". I think my pronunciation is the more usual one,
> | but I checked in my dictioanry and it told me the latter was the correct
> | one.

> Lexicographers, who write *English* dictionaries only describe the language
> as they find it.    Thus no dictionary is *correct*, it is only what the
> lexicographer/editor found the language to be at the time they wrote the
> dictionary.     If you compare dictionaries you will find as many opinions
> as dictionaries.

Yes, I'm aware of this issue. But even people whose language is not written
have a concept of statements in the language being "correct" or
"incorrect". If they didn't, it would not be possible to write grammars
for these languages. *Anyone* bringing up a child to speak any language
"corrects" that child's speech, even if that language is spoken only by a few
people living in mud huts miles from anywhere. Clearly language changes, so
that what one generation regarded as "incorrect" another regards as
standard. No doubt in the past there were speakers of Old English
desperately trying, but failing, to get their children to use the correct
case endings for nouns, until what was once "correct" became at first a
quaint affectation and then unknown, while what was incorrect and would get
the speaker thought sloppy became the standard.

Matthew Huntbach
Dave Fawthrop - 25 Feb 2004 14:00 GMT
| Yes, I'm aware of this issue. But even people whose language is not written
| have a concept of statements in the language being "correct" or
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
| quaint affectation and then unknown, while what was incorrect and would get
| the speaker thought sloppy became the standard.

In English tradition the *only* criteria for ?correct? English is the
ability to pass information to another ?English? speaker.    This leads to
anomalies with the various versions.    I personally have great difficulty
understanding the speech of Political Leaders from both sides of the
Northern Irish divide.    I also have to think twice when a Scot uses
"outwith".     Strine is yet another problem.

In the days before email, I used to take phone calls in English from all
over the world.     These sounded like complete gobbledegook until I worked
out the accent.

Dave F
John Briggs - 25 Feb 2004 14:05 GMT
> In English tradition the *only* criteria for ?correct? English is the
> ability to pass information to another ?English? speaker.

I think you mean criterion.
Signature

John Briggs

David - 25 Feb 2004 16:15 GMT
> > In English tradition the *only* criteria for ?correct? English is
> > the ability to pass information to another ?English? speaker.

> I think you mean criterion.

Yes, but that's Greek; and anyway, if you were to judge Dave *only* on
the criterion he proposed, you'd have to allow it. :-)

On a related note, I once had a prolonged argument on the Zetnet local
newsgroups with a retired barrister who was convinced of the singular
"phenomena". To his credit, he did present evidence in the form of
several quotes from ancient illiterates rich enough to have their
witterings retained for posteriority.

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John Briggs - 25 Feb 2004 16:24 GMT
>>> In English tradition the *only* criteria for ?correct? English is
>>> the ability to pass information to another ?English? speaker.
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> several quotes from ancient illiterates rich enough to have their
> witterings retained for posteriority.

I see.  Or I think I do - is that last word a joke?
Signature

John Briggs

David - 25 Feb 2004 16:26 GMT
> >>> In English tradition the *only* criteria for ?correct? English is
> >>> the ability to pass information to another ?English? speaker.
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> > form of several quotes from ancient illiterates rich enough to have
> > their witterings retained for posteriority.

> I see.  Or I think I do - is that last word a joke?

No: Posteriority is what comes after you; "judge" was the joke.

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John Briggs - 25 Feb 2004 16:34 GMT
>>> On a related note, I once had a prolonged argument on the Zetnet
>>> local newsgroups with a retired barrister who was convinced of the
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>
> No: Posteriority is what comes after you.

No, it is the state or quality of coming after.
Signature

John Briggs

David - 25 Feb 2004 19:56 GMT
> >>> On a related note, I once had a prolonged argument on the Zetnet
> >>> local newsgroups with a retired barrister who was convinced of
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
> >
> > No: Posteriority is what comes after you.

> No, it is the state or quality of coming after.

And a fine quality in a man, to be sure.

But, nudgewinkery and hilarity aside, on any prioritised list of
citations intended to demonstrate the historically accepted tensing of
phenomena, those presented by my learned friend would certainly have
been near the bottom. Probably never even reached the benchmark.

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John Briggs - 25 Feb 2004 20:26 GMT
>>>>> On a related note, I once had a prolonged argument on the Zetnet
>>>>> local newsgroups with a retired barrister who was convinced of
[quoted text clipped - 14 lines]
> phenomena, those presented by my learned friend would certainly have
> been near the bottom. Probably never even reached the benchmark.

But you still haven't convinced me that you understand 'posterity'.
Signature

John Briggs

David - 25 Feb 2004 22:45 GMT
> >>>>> On a related note, I once had a prolonged argument on the
> >>>>> Zetnet local newsgroups with a retired barrister who was
[quoted text clipped - 16 lines]
> > have been near the bottom. Probably never even reached the
> > benchmark.

> But you still haven't convinced me that you understand 'posterity'.

Well then, you, your hairs and excessors, will have to remain
unconvinced.

Humour is very much like beauty, if you see what I mean.

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John Briggs - 25 Feb 2004 23:08 GMT
>>>>>>> On a related note, I once had a prolonged argument on the
>>>>>>> Zetnet local newsgroups with a retired barrister who was
[quoted text clipped - 23 lines]
>
> Humour is very much like beauty, if you see what I mean.

I see.  So when you say "No", you mean "Yes"?
Signature

John Briggs

Dave Swindell - 26 Feb 2004 07:42 GMT
>>>>>>>> On a related note, I once had a prolonged argument on the
>>>>>>>> Zetnet local newsgroups with a retired barrister who was
[quoted text clipped - 25 lines]
>
>I see.  So when you say "No", you mean "Yes"?

I imagine you are free to assume whatever you want about "yes" and "no",
but as you appear to have exhibited a terminal lack of subtlety and
irony I don't think you would get the point anyway ;-)
David - 26 Feb 2004 08:07 GMT
> >>>>> In article
> >>>>> <7%3%b.2001$1h7.13455@newsfep4-glfd.server.ntli.net>, John
[quoted text clipped - 27 lines]
> >
> > Humour is very much like beauty, if you see what I mean.

> I see.  So when you say "No", you mean "Yes"?

No.

If you really do need the joke explaining then you might have to miss
out on the laugh. It is commonly stated that a joke is never funny once
it has been explained. That might not be so. On the other cheek, some
folk never do see the joke whether it be explained or not. The last
word, in itself, wasn't the joke, just the butt end of it.

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 the brown sleeve of his old tweed jacket...

Dave Swindell - 25 Feb 2004 08:15 GMT
>To my consternation, my comprehension of the concepts listed in
>the subject line has been questioned, and I consequently crave
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
>split a vowel sound into two syllables or not, and is that
>necessarily two metrical beats?

<SNIPPETY SNIP>

All very erudite, but gaining your poetic licence gives you permission
to be as creative, or destructive, as you like with syllables, vowels
and diphthongs, let alone consonants and phonemes generally.

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