At 09:40:31 on Mon, 5 Apr 2004, Matthew Huntbach <mmh@dcs.qmw.ac.uk>
wrote in <c4r9if$7io$1@beta.qmul.ac.uk>:
>> I've been reading with interest the reactions to the latest Harry
>> Potter book in which J.K. Rowling used "span" instead of the more
>> usual "spun" as the past tense of "spin".
>Compare with "ring", "rang" and "rung" for the present, past and past
>particple of the verb "to ring". I think you will find there is a tendency
>these days for "rung" to be used as the past tense as well as the past
>participle.
Which reminds me of the following, learned as a tongue-twister when I
was a small child:
Swim, swan, swim!
The swan swam over the river.
Swim, swim, swan!
The swan swam back again.
Well swum, swan!

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Molly Mockford
I think I've been too long on my own, but the little green goblin that
lives under the sink says I'm OK - and he's never wrong, so I must be!
(My Reply-To address *is* valid, though may not remain so for ever.)
> > I've been reading with interest the reactions to the latest Harry
> > Potter book in which J.K. Rowling used "span" instead of the more
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
> past participle to merge, particularly in irregular verbs that aren't used
> often enough for people to become sure of the correct form.
This is not a new tendency. For example, we now say "stood" for the
past tense of stand. According to the OED, the past participle was
"standen" until the 16th century.
However, there have also been movements in the other direction -
towards the distinct forms. This post demonstrates this very clearly:
http://www.google.co.uk/groups?q=g:thl3463504825d&dq=&hl=en&lr=&ie=UTF-8&oe=UTF-
8&selm=rjnyxrebjypebsgpbz.gk17zn0.pminews%40news.cis.dfn.de
Some verbs used to have both the -u- form and the -a- form listed as
correct alternatives for the past tense, e.g. shrunk/shrank,
sunk/sank, spun/span, stunk/stank. In almost all cases the -a- form
is now regarded as standard for the past, with the -u- form reserved
for the past participle!
> I assume that with the verb "to spin" that tendency had already set in by
> the time the dictionaries were compiled.
There's a major pondian issue here. The 1828 Webster dictionary
suggests that "span" was obsolete in the US, even then. In contrast,
the examples in the OED suggest that both forms were used equally in
19th century Britain.
> Nevertheless, I myself thought that "span" was
> correct, and was surprised to see my dictionary (Collins 1956) referring to
> it as "Arch"(aic).
The Concise Oxford Dictionary used to say "archaic" but now says
"chiefly archaic" which is a little vague, but more accurate. In my
view there is no justification for labelling "span" as archaic in the
UK. It's still current, but used less frequently than "spun".
> Of course, the Americans have famously kept the past participle of the verb
> "to get" where we Brits have dropped it (although it seems to be creeping
> back into British usage probably due to USA influence).
This is another example of a verb form which attracts unreasonable
criticism. For example, the Concise Oxford Dictionary (edition 10)
has this rather puzzling usage note:
"The form gotten is very common in North American English, though even
there it is often regarded as nonstandard."
Maybe this has something to do with resistance to "gotten" in Canada.
Here is an example:
http://www.google.co.uk/groups?hl=en&ie=UTF-8&selm=886818529.754863%40michelob
'"Gotten" is incorrect and is considered ghetto English in all
English-speaking countries.'
This is of course followed by series of replies pointing out that all
the North American dictionaries list "gotten" as correct usage. But
the most strongly-worded response came from Britain!
http://www.google.co.uk/groups?hl=en&lr=&ie=UTF-8&selm=kMR93IAJu630Ew09%40redwoo
ds.demon.co.uk
'Absolute rubbish ... American English (along with Scottish) has
retained the older form, but in the English of the southern half of
Britain it has been replaced by "got".'
David Picton - 06 Apr 2004 17:57 GMT
[snip]
> > Compare with "ring", "rang" and "rung" for the present, past and past
> > particple of the verb "to ring". I think you will find there is a tendency
> > these days for "rung" to be used as the past tense as well as the past
> > participle. In general there does seem to be a tendency for past tense and
> > past participle to merge, particularly in irregular verbs that aren't used
> > often enough for people to become sure of the correct form.
> However, there have also been movements in the other direction -
> towards the distinct forms. This post demonstrates this very clearly:
Sorry - that's the wrong post. The reference should be a little
further down the thread:
http://www.google.co.uk/groups?&selm=rjnyxrebjypebsgpbz.gjz3en0.pminews%40news.c
is.dfn.de
The conclusion: during the 20th century, verbs which allowed both the
-u- and the -a- form in the past tense were mostly standardized on the
-a- form.
Now we have the situation where the -u- form is often used in speech
e.g. I swum, but educated people know that this should be corrected to
the -a- form (I swam) in standard English. I have a suspicion that
some people will "correct" spun to span, with the result that its use
in print will actually increase. In fact, this process may already
have started.
David Picton - 07 Apr 2004 12:13 GMT
> [snip]
>
> > > I think you will find there is a tendency
> > > these days for "rung" to be used as the past tense as well as the past
> > > participle.
> Now we have the situation where the -u- form is often used in speech
> e.g. I swum, but educated people know that this should be corrected to
> the -a- form (I swam) in standard English.
I have now carried out a UK website survey which bears out this point.
For swam vs swum as the past tense: 99% swam, 1% swum! This proves
that there is still a strong preference for the -a- form in the
written language, despite the fact that the -u- form is very common in
speech.