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Good English?

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Gunter Kuhnle - 23 May 2004 15:43 GMT
Hallo,

in a rather formal document published by my employer, I found the
following phrase:

"You must ensure that you have read and understand [the relevant
regulations]".

For some reason, I don't like this sentence; for me, it does not
sound like good English. However, as I am not a native speaker, I may
be wrong and this is a very elegant way of expression.

What do you think of this?

Best wishes,

Gunter
John Briggs - 23 May 2004 15:53 GMT
> Hallo,
>
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>
> What do you think of this?

The word "understand" should be "understood" if it means '[have] understood'

If it means 'that you understand', it should say exactly that.
Signature

John Briggs

Gunter Kuhnle - 23 May 2004 15:59 GMT
> The word "understand" should be "understood" if it means '[have] understood'
>
> If it means 'that you understand', it should say exactly that.

So it is ambiguous? When I read it the first time, I wasn't sure whether
'understand' should have been in the same tense as 'read' (present
perfect) or whether it should be present, meaning that I 'understand'
the regulations as I *have* read them.

But I'm still not sure which of the two possibilities would be the right
expression. What do you think?

Gunter
John Briggs - 23 May 2004 16:06 GMT
>> The word "understand" should be "understood" if it means '[have]
>> understood'
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> But I'm still not sure which of the two possibilities would be the right
> expression. What do you think?

It could be either - that's what "ambiguous" means :-)

"... that you understand ..." is probably preferable, otherwise some
comedian could say that he understood the regulations when he read them, but
no longer does :-)
Signature

John Briggs

Tom - 23 May 2004 21:09 GMT
Gunter Kuhnle wrote...

>>The word "understand" should be "understood" if it means '[have] understood'
>>
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> But I'm still not sure which of the two possibilities would be the right
> expression. What do you think?

"You must ensure that you have read and understand [the relevant
regulations]".

This is perfectly good English, and was undoubtedly drawn up by a lawyer ;)

you have read the regulations (past tense)
you understand them as they currently stand (now, and anytime after)

Worded like this, it requires you to know regulations which may not be in the
document, and may have been introduced after the document was published.
You must have read the document, but you must *always* know the current regulations.
Gunter Kuhnle - 23 May 2004 23:10 GMT
> This is perfectly good English, and was undoubtedly drawn up by a lawyer ;)

Is it really _good_ English, not only legal English?

I don't think it was a lawyer, as the text also states that 'changes
[in the relevant document] should be [...] signed [by an authorised
person]'. However, the regulation states that they _must_ be signed, so
I would assume that 'shall' or 'must' would be the proper verb. Or do I
misinterpret the 'should' used here?

> Worded like this, it requires you to know regulations which may not be
> in the document, and may have been introduced after the document was
> published.  You must have read the document, but you must *always*
> know the current regulations.

ACK - but isn't there a better way to express this? The document is for
normal people, not for lawyers.

Gunter
Signature

./.

David - 24 May 2004 00:06 GMT
> > This is perfectly good English, and was undoubtedly drawn up by a
> > lawyer ;)

> Is it really _good_ English, not only legal English?

Yes, it is perfectly good English. It is merely asking that you comply
with the two conditions, the first (reading) being a single event in
time that has to have occurred in the past, and the second
(understanding) being an ongoing state. There is no need in English for
all parts of a sentence to have the same tense.

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Tom - 24 May 2004 03:13 GMT
Gunter Kuhnle wrote...

>>This is perfectly good English, and was undoubtedly drawn up by a lawyer ;)
>
> Is it really _good_ English, not only legal English?

"ensure that you have read and understand [the relevant policy]"

When I say it's perfectly good English I mean it's technically correct
(depending on how [the relevant policy] is actually worded) but would rarely be
used in that style. It would normally be 'have read and understood'. It's not
quite right as it is - it's drawing unnatural attention to the present tense.
It's being too specific, and as someone else pointed out, probably deliberately
so. If I /had/ to use that sentence I would put in at least one comma and
probably two - but then lawyers are famous for not using punctuation.

The mixing of tenses like this is probably best left for lawyers, poets, and
local dialects. The wording is very particular. It's legalese or maybe even a
typo. Maybe it's 'management speak'.

"I've read the regulations and understand them"     sounds fine to me.
"I've read the regulations and understood them"     sounds a bit wrong.
"I've cooked my dinner and eat it"            sounds all wrong.
"I've read the book and say it's good"        sounds fine.

go figure! you probably at least need to be referring to the same noun in both
tenses. That's why I say [the wording you left out] is relevant.

"I've bought a football and kick it."         doh!
Matthew Huntbach - 24 May 2004 09:23 GMT
> Gunter Kuhnle wrote...

> > Is it really _good_ English, not only legal English?

> "ensure that you have read and understand [the relevant policy]"
>
> When I say it's perfectly good English I mean it's technically correct
> (depending on how [the relevant policy] is actually worded) but would rarely be
> used in that style. It would normally be 'have read and understood'.

No, it is a shortening of "you have read and you understand".

English allows you to convert

<subject> <verb phrase> and <subject> <verb phrase>

to

<subject> <verb phrase> and <verb phrase>

where the two <subject>s are identical.

Sometimes the repetition of the subject sounds clumsy, and making this
conversion leads to a more elegant sentence, but at other times the
copnversion leads to clumsy senetences. In this case I think "you have read
and you understand" would actually be the better sentence.

> It's not
> quite right as it is - it's drawing unnatural attention to the present tense.
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
> go figure! you probably at least need to be referring to the same noun in both
> tenses. That's why I say [the wording you left out] is relevant.

But

"I've cooked my dinner and am eating it"

and

"I've cooked my dinner and will eat it".

sound fine. In this case I think the wrongness of your sentence comes from
the verb chosen not from the difference in tenses. The verb "to understand"
describes an action that continues, while the verb "to eat" describes an
action that starts and then stops. So "I understand the problem" can refer
to a single problem, while "I eat my dinner" cannot refer to a single
dinner, and this is the source of the wrongness. If you are referring to a
sinle dinner, it has to be "I am eating my dinner". The sentence "I eat my
dinner" only works when it refers to a habitual action involving many actual
dinners, as in "I eat my dinner at six o'clock every day".

So also

> "I've bought a football and kick it."         doh!

is fine when it becomes

"I've bought a football and kick it around every lunchtime".

Matthew Huntbach
Mike Stevens - 23 May 2004 23:58 GMT
> > The word "understand" should be "understood" if it means '[have] understood'
> >
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> But I'm still not sure which of the two possibilities would be the right
> expression. What do you think?

I think either is grammatically correct.  The most used form is "...
have read and understood ...", even though what is really meant is " ...
have read ..." (at some time) "... and understand..." (now).

I feel that in a case like this there is an argument to be made for
using the less usual form to make the reader do a double-take and
consider what it really means.

--
Mike Stevens, narrowboat Felis Catus II
web site www.mike-stevens.co.yk
Old grammarians never die, they simply parse away.
hudsterou - 27 May 2004 12:28 GMT
> Hallo,
>
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>
> What do you think of this?

It does make sense but looks a little strange as at first glance you
expect the word "understood" to be used, not "understand". However if
you rewrite it like this...

You must ensure that you:
1. Have read the relevant regulations
2. Understand the relevant regulations.

...the meaning becomes clear.
moi - 18 Jan 2005 03:55 GMT
> Hallo,
>
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> "You must ensure that you have read and understand [the relevant
> regulations]".

I always find these kind of clauses to be meaningless - how can you be sure
that you do actually "understand" the meaning that the other person imparts
to what they have written? The only way that I can think of is to have an
intensive period of discussion with the other person, allowing an extended
question and answer session. I can find ambiguities in the most mundane of
sentences if I want so I might have a different "understanding" to everyone
else's!
Dr. Edward Warren - 19 Jan 2005 03:08 GMT
> > Hallo,
> >
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> > "You must ensure that you have read and understand [the relevant
> > regulations]".

The compound verb in the subordinate clause is not composed of similar
tenses.  I would prefer for it to say either
". . . that you read and understand . . ."  or
". . . that you have read and understood . . ."

Sincerely,
Edward Warren
Tony Mountifield - 19 Jan 2005 07:47 GMT
> > > Hallo,
> > >
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> ". . . that you read and understand . . ."  or
> ". . . that you have read and understood . . ."

Except that each of those means something slightly different.

The original sentence means (a) that you have completed reading them,
and (b) that you *still* understand them.

"... that you read and understand ..." could mean that you should do so
sometime in the (near) future.

"... that you have read and understood ..." could mean that you
read them in the past and understood at the time, but maybe no longer
understand them!

Cheers
Tony
Signature

Tony Mountifield
Work: tony@softins.co.uk - http://www.softins.co.uk
Play: tony@mountifield.org - http://tony.mountifield.org

t - 22 Jan 2005 00:07 GMT
>> Hallo,
>>
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
> mundane of sentences if I want so I might have a different "understanding"
> to everyone else's!

I agree. But it can work to your own advantage as you can sign to say you
understand it, knowing that you understand it to your own satisfaction, with
your own interpretation, which may not be theirs.
Bill Smith - 10 Mar 2005 19:28 GMT
>>Hallo,
>>
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
> sentences if I want so I might have a different "understanding" to everyone
> else's!

Depends, surely, on the content of the document. If the text were in
plain statement, like "Any employee found smoking in the toilets during
working hours will be instantly dismissed," it's hard to believe that
anyone who read it could fail to understand it.

If the text is complex or convoluted, and the ideas themselves difficult
to grasp, the fault would IMO lie with the writer of the document; it is
for the *writer* to "ensure" that his/her readers can understand the
document - or perhaps find a more suitable means of putting across the
message.

Re "read and understand" v. "read and understood", there seems to me to
be little difference between them, though the first version would
benefit from a couple of commas.

Alternatively, what's wrong with "You must ensure that you understand
the relevant regulations"? You're not likely to understand the regs if
you *haven't* read them.
 
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