> > I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end of
> > the films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> Greek - it depends on whether the derivation is from the nominative
> or the genitive case.
Thanks for the info but it is only a partial answer to my question. Why
does one language use one form and the other language the other?
- Herman -
John of Aix - 25 Sep 2005 19:34 GMT
>>> I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end of
>>> the films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> Thanks for the info but it is only a partial answer to my question.
> Why does one language use one form and the other language the other?
Are you sure it is 'Ilias' in many other languages a (quick) Google
search only seems to turn up 'Ilias' in germanic languages, and the
original Greek.
HB - 26 Sep 2005 17:55 GMT
> >>> I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end
> of >>> the films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
> search only seems to turn up 'Ilias' in germanic languages, and the
> original Greek.
Well, there are quite a few Germanic languages, hence 'many' languages.
But that's not really the main issue here.
Why is English different from the other Germanic languages?
- Herman -
Giles Todd - 27 Sep 2005 00:27 GMT
> Why is English different from the other Germanic languages?
For the same reasons that all Germanic languages differ from other
Germanic languages.
Giles
Einde O'Callaghan - 25 Sep 2005 20:09 GMT
>>>I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end of
>>>the films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> Thanks for the info but it is only a partial answer to my question. Why
> does one language use one form and the other language the other?
I think this question is probably unanswerable since th forms
Ilias/iliad ha#ve existed in teh various languages for several hundred
years. Not all questions about language have a logical answer, I'm afraid.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
John Briggs - 26 Sep 2005 00:54 GMT
>>> I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end of
>>> the films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> Thanks for the info but it is only a partial answer to my question.
> Why does one language use one form and the other language the other?
OK, let's try to be systematic - what do you call the Aeneid?

Signature
John Briggs
HB - 26 Sep 2005 17:54 GMT
> >>> I watched the movie 'Troy' yesterday and noticed at the very end
> of >>> the films that the story was based on Homer's "Iliad".
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
>
> OK, let's try to be systematic - what do you call the Aeneid?
Aha, same thing happens here: we write 'Aeneïs'. Seems to be a
consistent discrepancy.
- Herman -