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I haven't had a good holiday in ages.

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pinko - 01 Dec 2006 13:12 GMT
I haven't had a good holiday in ages.

or..

I haven't had a good holiday for ages.

Which of those is better in *British* English?

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Mike Stevens - 01 Dec 2006 13:23 GMT
> I haven't had a good holiday in ages.
>
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
> Which of those is better in *British* English?

I hear both pretty frequently, but prefer to use the second one.   I'm a
native speaker of British English.

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Dave Fawthrop - 01 Dec 2006 13:46 GMT
|> I haven't had a good holiday in ages.
|>
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
|I hear both pretty frequently, but prefer to use the second one.   I'm a
|native speaker of British English.

I am a native speaker of northern English, and would think that the *first*
one is more common.  Maybe it is a North/South thing.
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Nick Wagg - 01 Dec 2006 14:25 GMT
> I haven't had a good holiday in ages.
>
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
> Which of those is better in *British* English?

I am a Brit and they both sound idiomatic to me and I would
be quite happy to use either form, although my initial response
is that I use "in" - I am from the North Midlands.
Blue Sow - 01 Dec 2006 15:58 GMT
> I haven't had a good holiday in ages.
>
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
> Which of those is better in *British* English?

In this context, 'ages' means 'a long time'.

I have not had a good holiday for a long time - I have only had a good holiday
for a short time.

I have not had a good holiday in a long time - seems to be more precise.

So, I would prefer 'I haven't had a good holiday in ages'.

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Blue Sow
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Einde O'Callaghan - 01 Dec 2006 20:22 GMT
Blue Sow schrieb:

>> I haven't had a good holiday in ages.
>>
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> I have not had a good holiday for a long time - I have only had a good
> holiday for a short time.

This interpretation seems totally inappropriate to me. For me both
expressions are synonymous - I'm from Ireland originally, but lived a
long time in London.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan

> I have not had a good holiday in a long time - seems to be more precise.
>
> So, I would prefer 'I haven't had a good holiday in ages'.
Philip Baker - 01 Dec 2006 21:51 GMT
>> I haven't had a good holiday in ages.
>>
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
>I have not had a good holiday for a long time - I have only had a good holiday
>for a short time.

That's worthy of a Lewis Carroll character.
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Philip Baker

Blue Sow - 02 Dec 2006 14:01 GMT
>>> I haven't had a good holiday in ages.
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
>
> That's worthy of a Lewis Carroll character.

And an example of corruption, rather than a serving suggestion.

My preference for 'in' is based upon the definitions of 'in' and 'for' as well
as finding it less easy to corrupt.

With reference to another poster, I avoid at all costs the use of American
English (because I am not American) so no matter how poor my choices, or my
motives, the results will be British English.

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Blue Sow

Tony Mountifield - 01 Dec 2006 16:52 GMT
> I haven't had a good holiday in ages.
>
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
> Which of those is better in *British* English?

I would naturally say "for ages". I grew up in the South of England
and still live there.

To my ears, "in ages" sounds American, notwithstanding the other reports
here of it being used further north in Britain!

Cheers
Tony
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pinko - 01 Dec 2006 19:49 GMT
Tony Mountifield ha scritto:

> To my ears, "in ages" sounds American

Yes, I think the 'in' form is more common in American English.

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Molly Mockford - 02 Dec 2006 01:41 GMT
At 16:52:37 on Fri, 1 Dec 2006, Tony Mountifield
<tony@softins.clara.co.uk> wrote in <ekpmkl$s8m$1@softins.clara.co.uk>:

>I would naturally say "for ages". I grew up in the South of England
>and still live there.
>
>To my ears, "in ages" sounds American, notwithstanding the other reports
>here of it being used further north in Britain!

My instinct would be to say "for ages", but equally I would say "in
years" rather than "for years".  Make what you will of that.

Born and raised in Edinburgh, subsequently London / Cambridgeshire /
Sussex for the last <30 years.
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Molly Mockford
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Bob Cunningham - 02 Dec 2006 02:04 GMT
> At 16:52:37 on Fri, 1 Dec 2006, Tony Mountifield
> <tony@softins.clara.co.uk> wrote in <ekpmkl$s8m$1@softins.clara.co.uk>:
> >I would naturally say "for ages". I grew up in the South of England
> >and still live there.

> >To my ears, "in ages" sounds American,

I, born in the US and resident here for the past 84-plus
years, will say equally naturally either "for ages" or "in
ages".

> >notwithstanding the other reports
> >here of it being used further north in Britain!
David - 02 Dec 2006 09:39 GMT
> > At 16:52:37 on Fri, 1 Dec 2006, Tony Mountifield
> > <tony@softins.clara.co.uk> wrote in
> > <ekpmkl$s8m$1@softins.clara.co.uk>:
>  
> > >I would naturally say "for ages". I grew up in the South of
> > >England and still live there.

> > >To my ears, "in ages" sounds American,

> I, born in the US and resident here for the past 84-plus years, will
> say equally naturally either "for ages" or "in ages".

> > >notwithstanding the other reports here of it being used further
> > >north in Britain!

Speaking entirely as a Yorkshireperson and so not qualified to comment
on "British English", I'd venture that the choice of "for ages" or "in
ages" might well depend on what hasn't happened. E.g. "I haven't seen
her for ages" but "I haven't seen him in ages".

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pinko - 01 Dec 2006 19:47 GMT
pinko ha scritto:

> I haven't had a good holiday in ages.
>
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
> Which of those is better in *British* English?

Thanks everyone. From your replies I deduce that both
forms are correct and commonly used.

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