[Conjugation/tense] Would have
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Thomas Hejl Pilgaard - 08 May 2007 18:55 GMT Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall?
"By then, Diane WOULD HAVE swum 2 miles" "By then, Diane SHOULD HAVE swum 2 miles" "By then, Diane COULD HAVE swum 2 miles"
Einde O'Callaghan - 08 May 2007 21:23 GMT Thomas Hejl Pilgaard schrieb:
> Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall? > > "By then, Diane WOULD HAVE swum 2 miles" > "By then, Diane SHOULD HAVE swum 2 miles" > "By then, Diane COULD HAVE swum 2 miles" It's often called the conditional - although technically speaking the conditional is a mode (or mood), not a tense.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Einde O'Callaghan - 08 May 2007 21:25 GMT Einde O'Callaghan schrieb:
> Thomas Hejl Pilgaard schrieb: > [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > It's often called the conditional - although technically speaking the > conditional is a mode (or mood), not a tense. I forgot to mention that it's the perfect conditional
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Bygvir Melkerson - 09 May 2007 13:55 GMT >>> "By then, Diane WOULD HAVE swum 2 miles" >>> "By then, Diane SHOULD HAVE swum 2 miles" [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] >> >I forgot to mention that it's the perfect conditional And the present conditional is "By then, Diane would have swim 2 miles"?
Einde O'Callaghan - 09 May 2007 15:05 GMT Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:
>>>>"By then, Diane WOULD HAVE swum 2 miles" >>>>"By then, Diane SHOULD HAVE swum 2 miles" [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > And the present conditional is "By then, Diane would have swim 2 > miles"? The present conditional is "would swim" but it wouldn't make any sense in the example sentence, which is about the past.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Einde O'Callaghan - 09 May 2007 15:08 GMT Einde O'Callaghan schrieb:
> Bygvir Melkerson schrieb: > [quoted text clipped - 12 lines] > The present conditional is "would swim" but it wouldn't make any sense > in the example sentence, which is about the past. It's probably worth pointing out that "would", "should" and "could" have several other usages besides the conditional.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Thomas Hejl Pilgaard - 10 May 2007 19:00 GMT > Einde O'Callaghan schrieb: >> Bygvir Melkerson schrieb: [quoted text clipped - 18 lines] > > Regards, Einde O'Callaghan Thank you very much.
Bygvir Melkerson - 09 May 2007 17:09 GMT >> And the present conditional is "By then, Diane would have swim 2 >> miles"? > >The present conditional is "would swim" but it wouldn't make any sense >in the example sentence, which is about the past. I thought 'by then' means in German 'bis dahin', maybe something like until then, until this moment or so. If this interpretation is correct, why does the pres. cond. make no sense? (By then, Diane would swim 2 miles = She don't swim, but if she does it, then 2 miles)?
Einde O'Callaghan - 09 May 2007 21:12 GMT Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:
>>>And the present conditional is "By then, Diane would have swim 2 >>>miles"? [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > correct, why does the pres. cond. make no sense? (By then, Diane would > swim 2 miles = She don't swim, but if she does it, then 2 miles)? In English it wzuld have to be "By now she would have swum 2 miles". Perfect because it started in the past and continues up to the present. Indeed in this particular context it would always be the perfect because the swimming started some time before the time in question (in this case not rel time but speculative time). And "then" is only used for some point in time distant from the present.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Bygvir Melkerson - 10 May 2007 07:10 GMT >In English it wzuld have to be "By now she would have swum 2 miles". >Perfect because it started in the past and continues up to the present. >Indeed in this particular context it would always be the perfect because >the swimming started some time before the time in question (in this case >not rel time but speculative time). And "then" is only used for some >point in time distant from the present. OK, I see. So in English you only use the present cond. in a case like: I'm not hungry, but if I were hungry I would eat something?
Einde O'Callaghan - 10 May 2007 08:49 GMT Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:
>>In English it wzuld have to be "By now she would have swum 2 miles". >>Perfect because it started in the past and continues up to the present. [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > OK, I see. So in English you only use the present cond. in a case > like: I'm not hungry, but if I were hungry I would eat something? I wouldn't say "only". he perfect is used when there is an element of "pastness", so to say, an dthe present when there is an element of "presentness" or "futurity". And as I mentioned earlier there are other usages of "would".
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Bygvir Melkerson - 10 May 2007 12:25 GMT >I wouldn't say "only". he perfect is used when there is an element of >"pastness", so to say, an dthe present when there is an element of >"presentness" or "futurity". OK
>And as I mentioned earlier there are other >usages of "would". You mean sentences like 'When my parents were away, my grandmother would take care of me'? This axample is from the English-German Oxford Dictionary. In the German translation there are no traces af any conditional.
BTW, I'm looking for a really god English-English dictionary. I have only one from my schooltime, about 35 years old. Price and size doesn't matter, many examples of usage is what I'm looking for. Is there a book you could recommend?
Paul Burke - 10 May 2007 14:07 GMT > BTW, I'm looking for a really god English-English dictionary. You don't usually get much usage in an E_E dictionary. This is my favourite: http://www.chambersharrap.co.uk/chambers/books/dictionaries/index.shtml
but there's more etymology than usage.
There are various books on usage (idioms, phrasal verbs etc.) in the books index: http://www.chambersharrap.co.uk/chambers/books/index.shtml.
Paul VBurke
Blue Sow - 10 May 2007 15:54 GMT > BTW, I'm looking for a really good English-English dictionary. My favourite is:
http://www.oup.com/uk/catalogue/?ci=9780198605751&view=ask
It includes sample quotations but limited usage.
This smaller dictionary has more usage but less dictionary
http://www.oup.com/uk/catalogue/?ci=9780198610571&view=ask
although I have not used that version.
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Bygvir Melkerson - 10 May 2007 16:31 GMT >This smaller dictionary has more usage but less dictionary Thanks both of you. I will take a further look at the bigger one, this book is availiable at the wholesalers in Germany within a few days.
Einde O'Callaghan - 10 May 2007 20:08 GMT Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:
>>I wouldn't say "only". he perfect is used when there is an element of >>"pastness", so to say, an dthe present when there is an element of [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > Dictionary. In the German translation there are no traces af any > conditional. That's one example - for example, it often correspondes to the German past subjunctive (Konjunktiv II), which may not necessarily have anything to do with conditionality, and it is also used in indirect speech without any element of conditionality
> BTW, I'm looking for a really god English-English dictionary. I have > only one from my schooltime, about 35 years old. Price and size > doesn't matter, many examples of usage is what I'm looking for. Is > there a book you could recommend? Som of the learners' dictionaries give some guidance on usage, but I think a guide to usage may be more useful if you want help on a fairly high level of sophistication. I'd recommend Michael Swan's "Modern English Usage", which IIRC is published by Oxford University Press. The current edition was published in 1995 but it's still an invaluable guide to many of the problems that advanced students of English have.
You can actually browse the book at <http://www.amazon.de/gp/reader/0194420981/ref=sib_dp_pt/302-5992301-1015206#read er-page>
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
John Briggs - 10 May 2007 21:33 GMT > Bygvir Melkerson schrieb: >> [quoted text clipped - 31 lines] > You can actually browse the book at > http://www.amazon.de/gp/reader/0194420981/ref=sib_dp_pt/302-5992301-1015206#read er-page That's "Practical English Usage" - "Modern English Usage " was Fowler (now "Fowler's Modern English Usage" by Burchfield...)
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Einde O'Callaghan - 10 May 2007 23:07 GMT John Briggs schrieb:
>>Bygvir Melkerson schrieb: >> [quoted text clipped - 34 lines] > That's "Practical English Usage" - "Modern English Usage " was Fowler (now > "Fowler's Modern English Usage" by Burchfield...) Alzheimer's or something seems to be affecting me - I had the facsimile of the front cover of the Swan book in front of me when I wrote that! :-((
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Matthew Huntbach - 11 May 2007 09:18 GMT > Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:
>>>>> "By then, Diane WOULD HAVE swum 2 miles" >>>>> "By then, Diane SHOULD HAVE swum 2 miles" >>>>> "By then, Diane COULD HAVE swum 2 miles"
>>>> It's often called the conditional - although technically speaking the >>>> conditional is a mode (or mood), not a tense.
>>> I forgot to mention that it's the perfect conditional
>> And the present conditional is "By then, Diane would have swim 2 >> miles"?
> The present conditional is "would swim" but it wouldn't make any sense in the > example sentence, which is about the past. It makes sense when "would swim" is used to mean a regular occurrence, and "then" means the time when this had become a regular occurrence.
"In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training sessions, by then she would swim 2 miles every week".
Matthew Huntbach
Ben Shimmin - 11 May 2007 12:01 GMT Matthew Huntbach <mmh@dcs.qmul.ac.uk>:
>> Bygvir Melkerson schrieb: [...]
>>> And the present conditional is "By then, Diane would have swim 2 >>> miles"? [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > "In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training sessions, > by then she would swim 2 miles every week". I'm not sure `by then' is idiomatic in that sentence. Certainly it sounds wrong to me. `back then' makes more sense:
`In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training sessions back then she would swim two miles every week.' OR back then she swam two miles every week.' OR back then she was swimming two miles every week.'
These all mean approximately the same thing, or are certainly close enough that, in conversation or writing, no casual practitioner of English would worry about the difference.
b.
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David - 11 May 2007 16:44 GMT > Matthew Huntbach <mmh@dcs.qmul.ac.uk>: > >> Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:
> [...]
> >>> And the present conditional is "By then, Diane would have swim 2 > >>> miles"? [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > > "In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training > > sessions, by then she would swim 2 miles every week".
> I'm not sure `by then' is idiomatic in that sentence. Certainly it > sounds wrong to me. `back then' makes more sense: Surely that depends on the intended sense?
> `In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training > sessions back then she would swim two miles every week.' OR back then > she swam two miles every week.' OR back then she was swimming two > miles every week.'
> These all mean approximately the same thing, or are certainly close > enough that, in conversation or writing, no casual practitioner of > English would worry about the difference. "Back then" doesn't mean the same as "by then". The latter has an implied - possibly essential - meaning of prior ongoing practice; the former is purely retrospective.
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Ben Shimmin - 11 May 2007 17:26 GMT David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
>> Matthew Huntbach <mmh@dcs.qmul.ac.uk>: [...]
>> >> The present conditional is "would swim" but it wouldn't make any >> >> sense in the example sentence, which is about the past. [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > > Surely that depends on the intended sense? It sounds wrong, whatever sense was intended.
>> `In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training >> sessions back then she would swim two miles every week.' OR back then [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > implied - possibly essential - meaning of prior ongoing practice; the > former is purely retrospective. Sure, I accept that `back then' is imprecise, but `by then' doesn't work in that sentence. It's not idiomatic. If you want better precision and a turn of phrase that actually sounds natural, I guess you might say:
`In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training sessions prior to that victory, she would swim two miles every week.'
(assuming that that is what `by then' is intended to mean here; if she also trained by swimming two miles every week after her victory, perhaps in preparation for future competitions, you would need to meddle with the sentence even further).
Again, `she swam' and `she was swimming' can replace `she would swim' with relatively little difference in meaning.
b.
 Signature <bas@bas.me.uk> <URL:http://bas.me.uk/> `The Americans advise matching socks to your pants, the Italians seem to contrast with both shoes and pants. The English, always the eccentrics, wear maroon socks with everything!' -- thesartorialist.blogspot.com
David - 11 May 2007 20:19 GMT > David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>: > >> Matthew Huntbach <mmh@dcs.qmul.ac.uk>:
> [...]
> >> >> The present conditional is "would swim" but it wouldn't make > >> >> any sense in the example sentence, which is about the past. [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > > > > Surely that depends on the intended sense?
> It sounds wrong, whatever sense was intended. To you, perhaps.
But I agree that the punctuation and order makes it awkward.
> >> `In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training > >> sessions back then she would swim two miles every week.' OR back [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > > implied - possibly essential - meaning of prior ongoing practice; > > the former is purely retrospective.
> Sure, I accept that `back then' is imprecise, but `by then' doesn't > work in that sentence. It's not idiomatic. If you want better > precision and a turn of phrase that actually sounds natural, I guess > you might say:
> `In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training > sessions prior to that victory, she would swim two miles every > week.' Try some preceding information:
"Diane began her swimming career in 1980, at first managing no more than a length at the local pool but soon increasing the distance. In 1990, she won a gold medal for swimming. By then she would swim 2 miles every week in her training sessions."
> (assuming that that is what `by then' is intended to mean here; if > she also trained by swimming two miles every week after her victory, > perhaps in preparation for future competitions, you would need to > meddle with the sentence even further).
> Again, `she swam' and `she was swimming' can replace `she would swim' > with relatively little difference in meaning. Yes, but "back then" compares with today; "by then" indicates a process culminating at that point (the winning of the medal).
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Ben Shimmin - 11 May 2007 21:08 GMT David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
[...]
>> `In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training >> sessions prior to that victory, she would swim two miles every [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > 1990, she won a gold medal for swimming. By then she would swim 2 miles > every week in her training sessions." I'm sure that you could spin it out into a 17 page article and win the Pulitzer Prize, but `By then' used in this way still sounds clunky to me.
b.
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David - 11 May 2007 21:41 GMT > David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
> [...]
> >> `In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training > >> sessions prior to that victory, she would swim two miles every [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > > In 1990, she won a gold medal for swimming. By then she would swim > > 2 miles every week in her training sessions."
> I'm sure that you could spin it out into a 17 page article and win > the Pulitzer Prize, but `By then' used in this way still sounds > clunky to me. Surely it is in the nature of (the English) language to sound clunky to those who are used to different idioms, or dialects?
For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort to English to me.
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Ben Shimmin - 11 May 2007 21:54 GMT David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
[...]
>> I'm sure that you could spin it out into a 17 page article and win >> the Pulitzer Prize, but `By then' used in this way still sounds >> clunky to me. > > Surely it is in the nature of (the English) language to sound clunky to > those who are used to different idioms, or dialects? Yes, and I'm sure you can extend that argument so that all kinds of gibberish containing all manner of solecisms could be considered `English'. I don't think that's really of any help to the original poster, though.
> For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort > to English to me. Hopefully a slightly more intelligible one!
b.
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David - 11 May 2007 22:56 GMT > David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
> [...]
> >> I'm sure that you could spin it out into a 17 page article and win > >> the Pulitzer Prize, but `By then' used in this way still sounds > >> clunky to me. > > > > Surely it is in the nature of (the English) language to sound > > clunky to those who are used to different idioms, or dialects?
> Yes, and I'm sure you can extend that argument so that all kinds of > gibberish containing all manner of solecisms could be considered > `English'. I don't think that's really of any help to the original > poster, though. Even those used by you, no doubt.
Are you really saying that you don't understand the difference in meaning of the standard English "by then" and your modern (American?) English "back then"?
"By then", "by that time" - both pretty common English.
> > For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different > > sort to English to me.
> Hopefully a slightly more intelligible one! Pray tell what it is about my English that you find not so intelligible. I'd hazard that you understood quite well.
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Ben Shimmin - 11 May 2007 23:26 GMT David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
[...]
> Are you really saying that you don't understand the difference in > meaning of the standard English "by then" and your modern (American?) > English "back then"? > > "By then", "by that time" - both pretty common English. I'm perfectly aware of the difference, as I pointed out previously.
I also stand by what I said before: that usage of `By then' sounds clunky. I am not alone in thinking so. If it is acceptable in Yorkshire, then that's fine by me. I don't go to Yorkshire very often, so it's no skin off my nose if you chaps want to speak in strange and clunky ways.
>> > For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different >> > sort to English to me. [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > Pray tell what it is about my English that you find not so > intelligible. I'd hazard that you understood quite well. You are wearisome of late, David. I'm sure you used to be witty, once upon a time.
b.
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David - 12 May 2007 10:01 GMT > David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
> [...]
> > Are you really saying that you don't understand the difference in > > meaning of the standard English "by then" and your modern > > (American?) English "back then"? > > > > "By then", "by that time" - both pretty common English.
> I'm perfectly aware of the difference, as I pointed out previously. I don't think you did; no-one aware of the difference could have suggested "back then" as an alternative for "by then".
> I also stand by what I said before: that usage of `By then' sounds > clunky. I am not alone in thinking so. If it is acceptable in > Yorkshire, then that's fine by me. I don't go to Yorkshire very > often, so it's no skin off my nose if you chaps want to speak in > strange and clunky ways. Why this attempt to class "by then" as a Yorkshire usage? I'll repeat: it's a common English phrase, used throughout the UK (and quite probably in other parts of the English speaking world).
"The club was formed in 1980 with over 100 members but by 1990 the membership had dwindled to 10 and the club was wound up."
"The club, which had over 100 members when it was formed in 1980, lasted only until 1990. By then, it had only 10 members."
> >> > For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different > >> > sort to English to me. [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > Pray tell what it is about my English that you find not so > > intelligible. I'd hazard that you understood quite well.
> You are wearisome of late, David. I'm sure you used to be witty, > once upon a time. Wearisome because I wish to discuss English in ucle? What strange ideas you do have!
But I suppose if you're stumped by my request, we'll have to leave it there.
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Ben Shimmin - 12 May 2007 13:39 GMT David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
>> David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>: >> > Are you really saying that you don't understand the difference in [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > I don't think you did; no-one aware of the difference could have > suggested "back then" as an alternative for "by then". I very well think I did. I said: `I accept that `back then' is imprecise, but `by then' doesn't work in that sentence'. I suggested an alternative sentence which conveyed roughly, but not precisely, the same meaning, with the bonus of sounding like something someone who actually spoke English as their mother tongue might say. Plus, it was a relative convenience that only one word required changing.
I do not particularly wish to discuss this further. If you would like to impugn my ability to speak English by suggesting that I do not understand the differences between simple words and phrases, you may, but I imagine there are more profitable ways you might spend a Saturday afternoon, even if it is raining.
>> I also stand by what I said before: that usage of `By then' sounds >> clunky. I am not alone in thinking so. If it is acceptable in [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > "The club, which had over 100 members when it was formed in 1980, > lasted only until 1990. By then, it had only 10 members." Yes, `by then' is perfectly acceptable and idiomatic in those examples. In the previous example (hence my saying *THAT USAGE*), it sounded wrong. If it sounded fine to you, then we shall have to agree to disagree.
[...]
>> You are wearisome of late, David. I'm sure you used to be witty, >> once upon a time. > > Wearisome because I wish to discuss English in ucle? What strange ideas > you do have! Wearisome because every conversation you seem to have with anyone appears to involve the forcible extraction of teeth.
b.
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David - 12 May 2007 18:10 GMT > David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>: [Snip]
> >> You are wearisome of late, David. I'm sure you used to be witty, > >> once upon a time. > > > > Wearisome because I wish to discuss English in ucle? What strange > > ideas you do have!
> Wearisome because every conversation you seem to have with anyone > appears to involve the forcible extraction of teeth. I too find it wearisome that folk resort to simple insult when shewn to be wrong and to persist in their error.
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Matthew Huntbach - 12 May 2007 23:28 GMT > David <nos...@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
> > Are you really saying that you don't understand the difference in > > meaning of the standard English "by then" and your modern (American?) > > English "back then"?
> > "By then", "by that time" - both pretty common English.
> I'm perfectly aware of the difference, as I pointed out previously. > > I also stand by what I said before: that usage of `By then' sounds clunky. > I am not alone in thinking so. If it is acceptable in Yorkshire, then > that's fine by me. I don't go to Yorkshire very often, so it's no skin > off my nose if you chaps want to speak in strange and clunky ways. I introduced it, and I am from Sussex, not Yorkshire. "By then" indicating a point in time, followed by "would" and the present tense of a verb sounds to me to be perfectly normal English, indicating a habitual action at some point in a narrative. I am astonished to find someone who claims it's a strange or "clunky" usage.
Matthew Huntbach
Ben Shimmin - 13 May 2007 00:52 GMT Matthew Huntbach <mhuntbach@hotmail.com>:
[...]
> I introduced it, and I am from Sussex, not Yorkshire. "By then" > indicating a point in time, followed by "would" and the present tense Grammatically, the part following the `would' (a modal auxiliary) is actually the infinitive.
> of a verb sounds to me to be perfectly normal English, indicating a > habitual action at some point in a narrative. I am astonished to find > someone who claims it's a strange or "clunky" usage. Well... I'm sorry, but your original sentence didn't sound right to me.
b.
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Einde O'Callaghan - 11 May 2007 22:19 GMT David schrieb:
<snip>
> Surely it is in the nature of (the English) language to sound clunky to > those who are used to different idioms, or dialects? > > For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort > to English to me. May I enquire what dialect or idiom of English the last sentence is supposed to be? ;-)
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 11 May 2007 22:50 GMT > David schrieb:
> <snip> > > [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > May I enquire what dialect or idiom of English the last sentence is > supposed to be? ;-) Yorkshire. I understand it is of Norse origin.
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Tony Mountifield - 11 May 2007 22:58 GMT > For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort > to English to me. Only to you, or does he also speak it to others?
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David - 12 May 2007 10:03 GMT > > For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different > > sort to English to me.
> Only to you, or does he also speak it to others? Ah, yes, typo. Should have written "speaks an entirely different sort of English to me."
(Of course, you might prefer "than me".)
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John Hall - 12 May 2007 10:32 GMT >> > For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different >> > sort to English to me. [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > >(Of course, you might prefer "than me".) We always had it drummed into us in school that it should be "different from". If it's any consolation, I agree with you concerning "by then".
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David - 12 May 2007 11:38 GMT > >> > For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different > >> > sort to English to me. [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > > > >(Of course, you might prefer "than me".)
> We always had it drummed into us in school that it should be > "different from". If it's any consolation, I agree with you > concerning "by then". Yes, I know, but "different to" is pretty much the idiomatic English English form these days. I use it to annoy the Yanks - who think "different than", allow "different from" as quaint, but just can't get their heads around "different to".
It probably also should be "from mine"; but I can't think of any way of writing it that isn't open to different interpretation or which doesn't sound "clunky" (as the witty Ben would say).
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Blue Sow - 12 May 2007 11:39 GMT >>> For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different >>> sort to English to me. [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > > (Of course, you might prefer "than me".) I think the query might have been to ask what a 'wife sister husband' is!
The second query is not about a typo.
If the person 'speaks an entirely different sort of English to me' it means that they address you in a different way from the way they address other people.
'than me' is American English.
What you probably meant was 'speaks an entirely different sort of English from me' which suggests their dialect is not the same as your dialect.
 Signature Blue Sow
David - 12 May 2007 16:23 GMT > >>> For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different > >>> sort to English to me. [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > > > > (Of course, you might prefer "than me".)
> I think the query might have been to ask what a 'wife sister husband' > is! What it says. Just an ordinary English chain of connection as used every day by almost every English speaking person (probably in different contexts). In this case, the chap married to the woman who is sister to the woman to whom I am married.
Had I been speaking of a certain opening device attached to the door of a cupboard in my kitchen, would you have queried "kitchen cupboard door handle"? "Kitchen's cupboard's door's handle" does sound rather "clunky".
> The second query is not about a typo.
> If the person 'speaks an entirely different sort of English to me' it > means that they address you in a different way from the way they > address other people.
> 'than me' is American English. See my reply to John Hall.
> What you probably meant was 'speaks an entirely different sort of > English from me' which suggests their dialect is not the same as > your dialect. Ah, oui! My wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort of English which he learned from me.... Non?
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Blue Sow - 12 May 2007 16:54 GMT > What it says. Just an ordinary English chain of connection as used > every day by almost every English speaking person (probably in > different contexts). In this case, the chap married to the woman who is > sister to the woman to whom I am married. Ah, your wife's sister's husband. Or perhaps your sister-in-law's husband.
> Had I been speaking of a certain opening device attached to the door of > a cupboard in my kitchen, would you have queried "kitchen cupboard door > handle"? "Kitchen's cupboard's door's handle" does sound rather > "clunky". Actually, it sounds like gibberish, not to mention irrelevant.
>> If the person 'speaks an entirely different sort of English to me' it >> means that they address you in a different way from the way they [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > See my reply to John Hall. I did, after I had already posted.
>> What you probably meant was 'speaks an entirely different sort of >> English from me' which suggests their dialect is not the same as >> your dialect. > > Ah, oui! My wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort of > English which he learned from me.... Non? Non. I appreciate that English can be a difficult language to learn and I suspect that most here merely wish to help - some obviously resent assistance. Good luck with your learning anyway.
 Signature Blue Sow
David - 12 May 2007 18:02 GMT > > What it says. Just an ordinary English chain of connection as used > > every day by almost every English speaking person (probably in > > different contexts). In this case, the chap married to the woman > > who is sister to the woman to whom I am married.
> Ah, your wife's sister's husband. Or perhaps your sister-in-law's > husband. My sister-in-law husband could be my brother.
But yes, whereas standard English would use the "'s" genitive, some dialects would simply list the chain of connection - as standard English does in other contexts for other things.
> > Had I been speaking of a certain opening device attached to the > > door of a cupboard in my kitchen, would you have queried "kitchen > > cupboard door handle"? "Kitchen's cupboard's door's handle" does > > sound rather "clunky".
> Actually, it sounds like gibberish, not to mention irrelevant. But it's not irrelevant. You might easily say, e.g., "the kitchen cupboard door handle has broken." What's the difference between the construct of that and, e.g., "my sister wife husband has gout"?
It's an example of the diversity and use of the English language in the culture of the UK.
> >> If the person 'speaks an entirely different sort of English to me' > >> it means that they address you in a different way from the way [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > > > See my reply to John Hall.
> I did, after I had already posted.
> >> What you probably meant was 'speaks an entirely different sort of > >> English from me' which suggests their dialect is not the same as > >> your dialect. > > > > Ah, oui! My wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort > > of English which he learned from me.... Non?
> Non. I appreciate that English can be a difficult language to learn > and I suspect that most here merely wish to help - some obviously > resent assistance. Good luck with your learning anyway. Ooh! Some folk can be so unkind!
Some here wish to discuss and investigate the English language as it is and has been used in the culture of the UK - at least that's how it was in its active days.
But with the sort of attitude one seems to get nowadays, I don't wonder that usenet is dying.
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Blue Sow - 12 May 2007 18:34 GMT >> Ah, your wife's sister's husband. Or perhaps your sister-in-law's >> husband. > > My sister-in-law husband could be my brother. Your sister-in-law's husband could indeed be your brother.
>> Actually, it sounds like gibberish, not to mention irrelevant. > > But it's not irrelevant. You might easily say, e.g., "the kitchen > cupboard door handle has broken." What's the difference between the > construct of that and, e.g., "my sister wife husband has gout"? One would be widely understood to make perfect sense, and one would not. It is hard to tell from 'my wife sister brother' if you did not really mean 'my wife, sister, [and] brother' (i.e. all three of them). No one would imagine you meant 'the kitchen, cupboard, [and the] door has (sic) broken'.
> It's an example of the diversity and use of the English language in the > culture of the UK. It may well be an example of an idiolect.
>> Non. I appreciate that English can be a difficult language to learn >> and I suspect that most here merely wish to help - some obviously >> resent assistance. Good luck with your learning anyway. > > Ooh! Some folk can be so unkind! Not at all. One is never too old, or too clever, to learn more about a subject. Perhaps you think you do not need to learn more about English. If it were true, then you would be truly unique.
> Some here wish to discuss and investigate the English language as it is > and has been used in the culture of the UK - at least that's how it was > in its active days. And it seems, it still is.
> But with the sort of attitude one seems to get nowadays, I don't wonder > that usenet is dying. Well yes. But the rest of us are trying to keep it alive.
 Signature Blue Sow
David - 12 May 2007 21:23 GMT > >> Ah, your wife's sister's husband. Or perhaps your sister-in-law's > >> husband. > > > > My sister-in-law husband could be my brother.
> Your sister-in-law's husband could indeed be your brother. That's what I wrote;,I just used a different form of English. One you seem not to accept.
> >> Actually, it sounds like gibberish, not to mention irrelevant. > > > > But it's not irrelevant. You might easily say, e.g., "the kitchen > > cupboard door handle has broken." What's the difference between the > > construct of that and, e.g., "my sister wife husband has gout"?
> One would be widely understood to make perfect sense, and one would > not. It is hard to tell from 'my wife sister brother' if you did not > really mean 'my wife, sister, [and] brother' (i.e. all three of > them). No one would imagine you meant 'the kitchen, cupboard, [and > the] door has (sic) broken'. Okay, a difficult example for you to take in. How about something less complex? "Was that our Tom Henry cat the dog just ate?"
> > It's an example of the diversity and use of the English language in > > the culture of the UK.
> It may well be an example of an idiolect. Oh, well, if you're going to accuse me of lying.
> >> Non. I appreciate that English can be a difficult language to > >> learn and I suspect that most here merely wish to help - some > >> obviously resent assistance. Good luck with your learning anyway. > > > > Ooh! Some folk can be so unkind!
> Not at all. One is never too old, or too clever, to learn more about > a subject. Perhaps you think you do not need to learn more about > English. If it were true, then you would be truly unique. You seem to think you know it all.
> > Some here wish to discuss and investigate the English language as > > it is and has been used in the culture of the UK - at least that's > > how it was in its active days.
> And it seems, it still is. I don't know. Seems to me it's nought but trolls and folk who won't accept any viewpoint but their own.
> > But with the sort of attitude one seems to get nowadays, I don't > > wonder that usenet is dying.
> Well yes. But the rest of us are trying to keep it alive. I was including you among those killing it off. Certainly accusing folk of lying doesn't do much for its health.
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Blue Sow - 13 May 2007 10:58 GMT > That's what I wrote;,I just used a different form of English. One you > seem not to accept. Rather, I suggested it was open to misinterpretation and could be written more clearly.
> Okay, a difficult example for you to take in. How about something less > complex? "Was that our Tom Henry cat the dog just ate?" I am sure that means something to you. Generally, the purpose of communication is to convey some sort of meaning to others. Your sentence above does not do this in such a way that it might mean the same thing to each reader.
>>> It's an example of the diversity and use of the English language in >>> the culture of the UK. > >> It may well be an example of an idiolect. > > Oh, well, if you're going to accuse me of lying. You open a conditional without offering an outcome. Happily, I did not make any such accusation, nor to I plan to do so in the near future. Offering a contrary opinion on an example of usage is not an accusation of falsehood, and I am sure that you know that. It might have been amusing to see the conclusion of your sentence in any case, but perhaps it was just a throw-away comment.
>> Not at all. One is never too old, or too clever, to learn more about >> a subject. Perhaps you think you do not need to learn more about >> English. If it were true, then you would be truly unique. > > You seem to think you know it all. It is unlikely that anyone who had any information on which to base such an opinion would arrive at that one. It is so far from the truth as to be quite funny. 'The more one knows, the more one realises how little one knows'. There is always more to be learned until death or dementia makes it difficult.
> I don't know. Seems to me it's nought but trolls and folk who won't > accept any viewpoint but their own. Well, no one is making you post here. This is not the 'Hotel California'; you may leave at any time. I have to say that you do describe yourself very well there, and you have presented it in a way that is easy for everyone to understand.
> I was including you among those killing it off. Certainly accusing folk > of lying doesn't do much for its health. Were you? Far be it from me to deny you your opinion, however perverse. I do agree with you about accusations of lying but I have not seen an example of that in recent times, and within my posts at least, neither have you.
 Signature Blue Sow
David - 13 May 2007 12:39 GMT > > That's what I wrote;,I just used a different form of English. One > > you seem not to accept.
> Rather, I suggested it was open to misinterpretation and could be > written more clearly. Hardly. I wrote as is spoken: the "s-less" genetive. How could it be written more clearly? And what language is not open to misinterpretation? Certainly standard English is misinterpreted by almost all folk almost all the time. Witness Ben Shimmin who apparently could not tell the difference in meaning between "by then" and "back then" (or he was simply trolling, and requirement that I be witty in my replies to him seems to bear out that supposition).
> > Okay, a difficult example for you to take in. How about something > > less complex? "Was that our Tom Henry cat the dog just ate?"
> I am sure that means something to you. Generally, the purpose of > communication is to convey some sort of meaning to others. Your > sentence above does not do this in such a way that it might mean the > same thing to each reader. It is perfectly comprehensible to folk who use the unmodified genitive. As the genitive is not modified, and as it is precisely the form of language folk use, pray tell me how it could be differently written?
> >>> It's an example of the diversity and use of the English language > >>> in the culture of the UK. > > > >> It may well be an example of an idiolect. > > > > Oh, well, if you're going to accuse me of lying.
> You open a conditional without offering an outcome. Not enough time to write it all - and a complete waste of bandwidth doing so.
> Happily, I did > not make any such accusation, nor to I plan to do so in the near > future. Offering a contrary opinion on an example of usage is not an > accusation of falsehood, and I am sure that you know that. It might > have been amusing to see the conclusion of your sentence in any case, > but perhaps it was just a throw-away comment. I said it was dialect; by saying that it may well be an example of idiolect, and not accepting what I said in good faith, you effectively called me a liar.
> >> Not at all. One is never too old, or too clever, to learn more > >> about a subject. Perhaps you think you do not need to learn more > >> about English. If it were true, then you would be truly unique. > > > > You seem to think you know it all.
> It is unlikely that anyone who had any information on which to base > such an opinion would arrive at that one. It is so far from the > truth as to be quite funny. 'The more one knows, the more one > realises how little one knows'. There is always more to be learned > until death or dementia makes it difficult. and you know so much that you know you know so little yet still have a mind completely closed to the possibility that there exists English genitives not ending in "'s".
> > I don't know. Seems to me it's nought but trolls and folk who won't > > accept any viewpoint but their own.
> Well, no one is making you post here. This is not the 'Hotel > California'; you may leave at any time. I have to say that you do > describe yourself very well there, and you have presented it in a > way that is easy for everyone to understand. Really? It's you who hasn't accepted the concept of the "s-less" genitive in Yorkshire dialect; you who won't accept the written version of the spoken sentence but demands it be rewritten in a way that you understand; you who try to put down folk who wish to discuss the culture of the English language in the UK rather than treat the newsgroup merely as a less than helpful resource for ESL folk.
> > I was including you among those killing it off. Certainly accusing > > folk of lying doesn't do much for its health.
> Were you? Far be it from me to deny you your opinion, however > perverse. I do agree with you about accusations of lying but I have > not seen an example of that in recent times, and within my posts at > least, neither have you. Any perverse opinion in this current discussion must necessarily be yours as you are the one who doesn't seem to accept facts when presented with them. As to any lies within your posts, well there may be a very fine example quoted in a paragraph not too far above this.
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Ben Shimmin - 13 May 2007 13:20 GMT David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
[...]
> Hardly. I wrote as is spoken: the "s-less" genetive. How could it be > written more clearly? And what language is not open to [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > then" (or he was simply trolling, and requirement that I be witty in my > replies to him seems to bear out that supposition). I almost choked on my coffee at the accusation of trolling! Rather rich coming from you, surely?
Incidentally, I imagine your research into the ``s-less' genetive' may be augmented somewhat when you learn how to spell `genitive'.
b.
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David - 13 May 2007 17:47 GMT > David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
> [...]
> > Hardly. I wrote as is spoken: the "s-less" genetive. How could it > > be written more clearly? And what language is not open to [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > that I be witty in my replies to him seems to bear out that > > supposition).
> I almost choked on my coffee at the accusation of trolling! Rather > rich coming from you, surely? Nope. Do it entirely for the fact rather than any monetary reward.
So, if you weren't trolling, you admit your ear wasn't attuned to the difference in meaning between "by then" and "back then"? Those are the only two explanations I can think of for suggesting the change in the first place, and the rather strange attitude of yours that came across when challenged on it.
> Incidentally, I imagine your research into the ``s-less' genetive' > may be augmented somewhat when you learn how to spell `genitive'. Gee, thanks for that, Ben. Will you be editing all my posts and correcting the odd typo, along with the split infinitives and grammatical soelcisms I make? I really hope you do as it will save me an awful lot of bother having check over my own typing.
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Ben Shimmin - 13 May 2007 21:42 GMT David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
[...]
>> I almost choked on my coffee at the accusation of trolling! Rather >> rich coming from you, surely? [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > first place, and the rather strange attitude of yours that came across > when challenged on it. I think perhaps you need to read the thread once again. Clearly my contributions were too subtle for you to understand fully. Perhaps if you were to consume a little less gin before posting...
>> Incidentally, I imagine your research into the ``s-less' genetive' >> may be augmented somewhat when you learn how to spell `genitive'. > > Gee, thanks for that, Ben. Will you be editing all my posts and > correcting the odd typo, (the odd recurrent typo)
> along with the split infinitives and > grammatical soelcisms I make? I really hope you do as it will save me > an awful lot of bother having check over my own typing. Oh, I am sorry, David -- I thought my correction would aid your future Google searches on this topic. Obviously it just served to upset you, for which I apologise.
Anyway... I'm utterly bored with this. If you wish to discuss this nonsense any further, you have my email address. FU set accordingly.
b.
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David - 13 May 2007 22:22 GMT > David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
> [...]
> >> I almost choked on my coffee at the accusation of trolling! > >> Rather rich coming from you, surely? [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > > change in the first place, and the rather strange attitude of yours > > that came across when challenged on it.
> I think perhaps you need to read the thread once again. Clearly my > contributions were too subtle for you to understand fully. Well, that's one way of looking at it. Entirely the wrong way, of course, but don't let facts get in the way of trolling accusations.
> Perhaps > if you were to consume a little less gin before posting... Yes, another troll device.
> >> Incidentally, I imagine your research into the ``s-less' genetive' > >> may be augmented somewhat when you learn how to spell `genitive'. > > > > Gee, thanks for that, Ben. Will you be editing all my posts and > > correcting the odd typo,
> (the odd recurrent typo) Typos happen. Get over it. In my post to which you replied claiming to note my lack of competence at spelling, I used the word 'genitive' five times, only one of which had the typo 'genetive'.
Now, I accept that it would be better did I not have typos and other such errors in my posts but I do - as do quite a few other folk, probably because theses posts are usually dashed off - and ordinarily it is considered much less than good manners to draw so much attention to the odd typo. Usually, it is a practice resorted to by trolls who, losing arguments or realising their own contribution has been shewn up as less than 9 carat, seek to ridicule their opponents in any which way they can.
> > along with the split infinitives and > > grammatical soelcisms I make? I really hope you do as it will save > > me an awful lot of bother having check over my own typing.
> Oh, I am sorry, David -- I thought my correction would aid your > future Google searches on this topic. Obviously it just served to > upset you, for which I apologise. If I thought for one moment you really meant it, I'd accept it.
> Anyway... I'm utterly bored with this. If you wish to discuss this > nonsense any further, you have my email address. FU set accordingly. You said something similar before but you really couldn't bring yourself to stay away, could you?
You trolled publicly; I'll reply publicly.
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Ben Shimmin - 13 May 2007 22:43 GMT David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
[tedious attributions trimmed]
>> >> Incidentally, I imagine your research into the ``s-less' genetive' >> >> may be augmented somewhat when you learn how to spell `genitive'. [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > note my lack of competence at spelling, I used the word 'genitive' five > times, only one of which had the typo 'genetive'. Come on David, try and be at least a tiny bit honest. Before I'd corrected you, you made the same `typo' three times in
<4ee205d91bnospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>
and once in
<4ee250c799nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>
(not to mention once in the post to which I was following up). Come on, just admit it -- you can't spell the word `genitive'. :)
[...]
> You trolled publicly; I'll reply publicly. Sigh.
FU to poster again, FWIW.
b.
 Signature <bas@bas.me.uk> <URL:http://bas.me.uk/> `Every public action, which is not customary, either is wrong, or, if it is right, is a dangerous precedent. It follows that nothing should ever be done for the first time.' -- Francis M. Cornford, _Microcosmographia Academica_
David - 13 May 2007 22:59 GMT > David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
> [tedious attributions trimmed]
> >> >> Incidentally, I imagine your research into the ``s-less' > >> >> genetive' may be augmented somewhat when you learn how to spell [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > > to note my lack of competence at spelling, I used the word > > 'genitive' five times, only one of which had the typo 'genetive'.
> Come on David, try and be at least a tiny bit honest. Before I'd > corrected you, you made the same `typo' three times in
> <4ee205d91bnospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>
> and once in
> <4ee250c799nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>
> (not to mention once in the post to which I was following up). Come > on, just admit it -- you can't spell the word `genitive'. :) Did I really? Well, in that case, Einde can't spell the word "the" (to Einde, sorry for using you as an example but it is your most endearing typo).
I should think there's a very good technical reason why I might keep typing "genetive" instead of "genitive" when writing these posts in the hasty way that I do, and that is because I probably type the sequence "gene" far more than the sequence "geni".
I also think that fact that in a post where I use the word five times, I spell it correctly four times and make only one typo, would be good reason to believe that it was a typo and not an inability to spell.
Of course, only a troll would (a) make a count of the number of times I have made the typo, and (b) keep on making post after post about it. Or someone really fixated.
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Ben Shimmin - 13 May 2007 23:14 GMT David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
[plenty of verbiage explaining how he *can* spell `genitive' correctly, but sometimes he doesn't, just to keep the rest of us on our toes. Or something. I lost interest after the first paragraph of excuses, to be honest.]
> Of course, only a troll would (a) make a count of the number of times I > have made the typo, and (b) keep on making post after post about it. Or > someone really fixated. You must be right. I hadn't realised until now, but I think I'm actually very much in love with you.
FU to poster again. I hope it stays there, because I want David all to myself!
b.
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David - 13 May 2007 23:21 GMT > David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
> [plenty of verbiage explaining how he *can* spell `genitive' > correctly, but sometimes he doesn't, just to keep the rest of us on > our toes. Or something. I lost interest after the first paragraph > of excuses, to be honest.]
> > Of course, only a troll would (a) make a count of the number of > > times I have made the typo, and (b) keep on making post after post > > about it. Or someone really fixated.
> You must be right. I hadn't realised until now, but I think I'm > actually very much in love with you.
> FU to poster again. I hope it stays there, because I want David all > to myself! Squirm every which way you can, it still doesn't alter the fact that, even though you might make fewer typos than I do, you didn't suss the difference in meaning between the elegant "by then" and your clunky "back then".
Will you ever live it down?
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Ben Shimmin - 14 May 2007 00:11 GMT David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
[...]
>> FU to poster again. I hope it stays there, because I want David all >> to myself! > > Squirm every which way you can, it still doesn't alter the fact that, > even though you might make fewer typos `spelling errors', you mean.
> than I do, you didn't suss the > difference in meaning between the elegant "by then" and your clunky > "back then". > > Will you ever live it down? Presumably I will, since you're in the minority in thinking that the original phrasing involving `by then' did not sound clunky.
I'll set FU to poster for the last time, but I'm afraid I'm not going to take any further part in this increasingly tedious discussion.
b.
 Signature <bas@bas.me.uk> <URL:http://bas.me.uk/> `I have a good mind not to take Aloysius to Venice. I don't want him to meet a lot of horrid Italian bears and pick up bad habits.' -- Evelyn Waugh, _Brideshead Revisited_
David - 14 May 2007 09:11 GMT > David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
> [...]
> >> FU to poster again. I hope it stays there, because I want David > >> all to myself! > > > > Squirm every which way you can, it still doesn't alter the fact > > that, even though you might make fewer typos
> `spelling errors', you mean. I know what I mean; you cannot possibly know.
> > than I do, you didn't suss > > the difference in meaning between the elegant "by then" and your > > clunky "back then". > > > > Will you ever live it down?
> Presumably I will, since you're in the minority in thinking that the > original phrasing involving `by then' did not sound clunky. Going by all the emails of support you've received, I suppose.
> I'll set FU to poster for the last time, but I'm afraid I'm not going > to take any further part in this increasingly tedious discussion. Thank goodness for that!
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Blue Sow - 13 May 2007 16:23 GMT Nothing worthy of quotation, so <snip>
You have now resorted to raving, and meanwhile a range of other posts suggests that the weight of opinion is against you.
You might want to know that 'Possessive adjectives and pronouns [in Yorkshire dialect] do not differ greatly to [sic] those of standard English' http://www.yorksj.ac.uk/dialect/
You may write whatever drivel you wish in response to this. I made the effort to be helpful but now that your posts are not even thinly disguised as genuine, I can no longer spare the time to play with you.
Or: To drivel you whatever response write wish in may you this (in your dialect).
 Signature Blue Sow
David - 13 May 2007 20:01 GMT > Nothing worthy of quotation, so <snip>
> You have now resorted to raving, and meanwhile a range of other posts > suggests that the weight of opinion is against you.
> You might want to know that 'Possessive adjectives and pronouns [in > Yorkshire dialect] do not differ greatly to [sic] those of standard > English' http://www.yorksj.ac.uk/dialect/
> You may write whatever drivel you wish in response to this. I made > the effort to be helpful but now that your posts are not even thinly > disguised as genuine, I can no longer spare the time to play with > you.
> Or: To drivel you whatever response write wish in may you this (in > your dialect). Phew!
You really are a troll, aren't you! (No, that wasn't a question!)
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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 15:33 GMT David schrieb: <snip>
> Okay, a difficult example for you to take in. How about something less > complex? "Was that our Tom Henry cat the dog just ate?" I also have difficulty interpreting this. I can understand that the dog has just eaten a cat, but who teh cat belongs to is a riddle to me. did the cat belong to Henry, Toms's son, or was it a tom-cat called Henry or even a cat called Tom Henry - or perhaps, taking it to extremes, "our Tom" was eaten by a dog called "Henry cat".
Again can you interpret for those of us not privileged enough to have experienced the Yorkshire dialect.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 13 May 2007 18:18 GMT > David schrieb: <snip> > > [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > called Henry or even a cat called Tom Henry - or perhaps, taking it > to extremes, "our Tom" was eaten by a dog called "Henry cat".
> Again can you interpret for those of us not privileged enough to have > experienced the Yorkshire dialect. I really am sorry for you, not being so privileged!
Anyhow, I find your first question totally incomprehensible. Who on Earth is "Toms"? And what does the word "teh" mean? (I see you using it quite often.)
But, I think you're just playing silly beggars because it's (now) a Yorkshire thing and, as anyone knows, one is duty bound to ridicule anything Yorkshire in order to demonstrate our knowledge and intelligence.
However I'm sure that if you sift it enough, you'll eventually find the correct meaning amongst all the totally unlikely and downright impossible ones you prefer to suggest you think it might mean.
Oh well, at least we're in good company with Mr Chaucer.
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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 18:38 GMT David schrieb:
>>David schrieb: <snip> >> [quoted text clipped - 15 lines] > Earth is "Toms"? And what does the word "teh" mean? (I see you using it > quite often.) I actually used "Tom's" i.e. the Saxon genitive of Tom. I want to know if "Tom Henry" in your sentence means Henry, who is in some way related to Tom (perhaps his son). And "teh" is an obvious typo as can be discerned from the context - the fingers of the left hand being sometimes faster than those of the right when touchtyping.
> But, I think you're just playing silly beggars because it's (now) a > Yorkshire thing and, as anyone knows, one is duty bound to ridicule > anything Yorkshire in order to demonstrate our knowledge and > intelligence. I don't know why you think that. I asked you a genuine question and don't understand your hostility. I've always found the Yorkshire dialect fascinating when I've encountered it - indeed i find all dialects of English fascinating as they give a fascinating insight into the development of teh language and the possibilities that reside within it.
> However I'm sure that if you sift it enough, you'll eventually find the > correct meaning amongst all the totally unlikely and downright > impossible ones you prefer to suggest you think it might mean. I'd guess that it was the cat that was eaten and that it belonged to Henry, who may have been Tom's son, and that Tom is probably the speaker's brother. However that interpretation isn't based on any grammatical information in th sentence, it's merely an educted guess, whereas "my wife sister husband" does seem logical once you know about this dialect peculiarity (the latter word is not meant in any derogtory sense).
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 13 May 2007 20:14 GMT > David schrieb: > > [quoted text clipped - 23 lines] > can be discerned from the context - the fingers of the left hand > being sometimes faster than those of the right when touchtyping. Sorry Einde, you wrote "did the cat belong to Henry, Toms's son," and I picked out your other typo because I'm getting blasted for my typos and it seems as though you're going out of your way to suggest every impossible or implausible meaning whilst not coming up with one single meaning - the intended, actual one. The fact that you have missed saying the meaning but given every other possibly and ridiculous meaning you can think of does give one cause to think some pisstaking is going on somewhere.
> > But, I think you're just playing silly beggars because it's (now) a > > Yorkshire thing and, as anyone knows, one is duty bound to ridicule [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > into the development of teh language and the possibilities that > reside within it. Which doesn't seem to mesh too well with:
====================================================
In article <5anqe4F2nf585U1@mid.individual.net>,
> Thank you - I hadn't encountered this form before. However, it's now > clear that it isn't standard English, which is my interest as a > teacher of English as a second language. ====================================================
Either it is your interest or it is not.
> > However I'm sure that if you sift it enough, you'll eventually find > > the correct meaning amongst all the totally unlikely and downright [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > about this dialect peculiarity (the latter word is not meant in any > derogtory sense). I've explained in another post. Even in "standard" English, one would find "Tom's Harry's cat" "clunky" (to borrow a term from that arch-troll BS) and would expect something like "Tom's son Harry's cat" (commas seem impossible in that construct) so, if "standard" English wouldn't go for the two names like that, why should you expect it in this dialect form?
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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 22:11 GMT David schrieb:
>>David schrieb: >> [quoted text clipped - 32 lines] > meaning you can think of does give one cause to think some pisstaking > is going on somewhere. the meaning may be obvious to you since you're familiar witht he dialect, but until you know that it's a double barrelled name it is difficult to work out the sense.
>>>But, I think you're just playing silly beggars because it's (now) a >>>Yorkshire thing and, as anyone knows, one is duty bound to ridicule [quoted text clipped - 21 lines] > > Either it is your interest or it is not. As a teacher of English as a second language I have a professional interest in standard English - as an individual with widespread interests I'm interested among many other things in English in all its varieties and dialects.
>>>However I'm sure that if you sift it enough, you'll eventually find >>>the correct meaning amongst all the totally unlikely and downright [quoted text clipped - 14 lines] > wouldn't go for the two names like that, why should you expect it in > this dialect form? But why not? I was unfamiliar with the structure and trying to work out what it could mean. Only when I became aware that Tom Henry was actually the name of one individual did the structure make sense.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 13 May 2007 23:11 GMT > David schrieb: > > [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > dialect, but until you know that it's a double barrelled name it is > difficult to work out the sense. Firstly, I wouldn't call it a double barrelled name, I'd reserve that term for surnames. Secondly, although it might be difficult to work out the sense (and I really don't see why it should be, given that it is merely a dialect of English and not a foreign language), the fact of your coming out with every possible meaning but the right one is very, very fishy.
> > Either it is your interest or it is not. > > > As a teacher of English as a second language I have a professional > interest in standard English - as an individual with widespread > interests I'm interested among many other things in English in all > its varieties and dialects. Ah, well, it's just that after I'd gone to the (admittedly small) effort of a web search for your benefit, you apparently dismissed it as of no interest whatsoever to you, but later expressed great interest (but complete failure to understand) as though trying to draw me in...
> > I've explained in another post. Even in "standard" English, one > > would find "Tom's Harry's cat" "clunky" (to borrow a term from that [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > out what it could mean. Only when I became aware that Tom Henry was > actually the name of one individual did the structure make sense. I said before that it was odd that the one sense you didn't come up with was the correct one but it's even odder that the correct sense you failed to spot amongst all the silly ones was the one nearest to standard English.
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Einde O'Callaghan - 14 May 2007 00:15 GMT David schrieb:
>>David schrieb: >> [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > Firstly, I wouldn't call it a double barrelled name, I'd reserve that > term for surnames. I would tend to agree with you there but I couldn't think of another term for the double forename.
> Secondly, although it might be difficult to work out > the sense (and I really don't see why it should be, given that it is > merely a dialect of English and not a foreign language), the fact of > your coming out with every possible meaning but the right one is very, > very fishy. It woujld have been clearer if you'd used a single forename, but since with this Yorkshire non-Saxon genitive there is no way of telling which of a string of nouns is actually a genitive there was no indication taht it was a case of the double name of one individual. you are assuming knowledge of the cultural background that was missing.
>>>Either it is your interest or it is not. >> [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > of no interest whatsoever to you, but later expressed great interest > (but complete failure to understand) as though trying to draw me in... In my first post I explicitly said that standard english was my interest in my professional capacity AS AN ENGLISH TEACHER (those were the actual words I used). I said absolutely nothing of my personal interest or lack of interest in questions of dialect.
>>>I've explained in another post. Even in "standard" English, one >>>would find "Tom's Harry's cat" "clunky" (to borrow a term from that [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > failed to spot amongst all the silly ones was the one nearest to > standard English. As I've already said your use of the double name confused me. When you are illustrating a grammatical point it's best to use an example that doesn't raise irrelevant questions - this is something I've learned through bitter experience in the classroom.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 14 May 2007 09:32 GMT > David schrieb: [Snip all else]
["Was that our Tom Henry cat the dog just ate?"]
> > Secondly, although it might be difficult to work out the sense (and > > I really don't see why it should be, given that it is merely a [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > individual. you are assuming knowledge of the cultural background > that was missing. Not really; I am assuming some reasonable knowledge of English. As I've said, it is unlikely that an English speaker would have problems with, e.g., "kitchen cupboard door handle". That four-word chain might grammatically be not genitive but it does have precisely the same sense of linkage and dependency as, e.g., "wife's sister's husband's gout". Thee is no question in "kitchen cupboard door handle" that the handle is on the kitchen door, even though there is no indication that such is not the case - except for the fact of word order.
I also don't think it unusual for folk to have two forenames and be referred to as such. However, it is possible that "Tom Henry" gives a single forename and surname. That really doesn't matter in the example, does it? Where it really would matter would be in the context in which it was being used, and in that case, those hearing it would know.
I also expect English speakers of reasonable intelligence will go for the simplest interpretation first, perhpas seeking other interpretations should the first not make sense. You claim to have completely missed the indication of word order (the same order as standard English genitives or genitive chains, and the same order as the natural order in the more complex compound nouns). You had the information that it was genitive, just that it was a non-modified (i.e. "s-less") genitive. It really doesn't take much thought to find a reasonable meaning. Do you really have so much trouble working out the different meanings in compound nouns?
On non-modified forms: English has quite a few examples where verb forms do not differ, or where plurals do not differ. Who do you ask, when you come across the word "sheep", wether[1] singular or plural is meant?
[1] One for Ben Shimmin, there.
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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 15:26 GMT David schrieb:
<snip>
> But it's not irrelevant. You might easily say, e.g., "the kitchen > cupboard door handle has broken." What's the difference between the > construct of that and, e.g., "my sister wife husband has gout"? I find the last sentence incomprehensible, if only because AFAIK it is still impossible for your sister to have a wife, even if same-sex partnerships are now legally recognised. Perhaps you could interpret for those of us who don't come Yorkshire.
Here in Saxony, where I live, there is a dialect structure that translates as "my brother his car" or "my mother her hat" etc. However it can only replace the genitive when referring to people. Also you can't string them together.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 13 May 2007 18:06 GMT > David schrieb:
> <snip> > > [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > partnerships are now legally recognised. Perhaps you could interpret > for those of us who don't come Yorkshire. Well, even the trolling "blue sow" managed to pick out that I'd made a transposition error from the origin example "wife sister husband".
I've given you the URL of an academic web site dealing with the "s-less" genitive (or even genetive, just to give Shimmin another frisson of typographical pleasure), and even noted in my post for those who didn't wish to visit the site that it came from Old English genitives with certain endings: in Middle English, these generally fell to the common ""es"/"'s" ending throughout most of the UK but in some parts of Yorkshire, the generalisation was to the "s-less" (or unaltered) genitive.
Since I cannot but write what is spoken, I cannot write "wife's sister" as a representation of the Yorkshire s-less genitive "wife sister", nor similarly with the continuation of the chain.
I would have thought that being told it concerned the "s-less" genitive, anyone of moderate intelligence and a reasonable understanding of English would not find "my wife sister husband has gout" incapable of being understood (and might even, given previous posts in the thread, worked out the intended meaning of the erroneous "my sister wife husband has gout").
> Here in Saxony, where I live, there is a dialect structure that > translates as "my brother his car" or "my mother her hat" etc. > However it can only replace the genitive when referring to people. > Also you can't string them together. And if I were "blue sow" I might suggest "it may well be an example of an idiolect." You wouldn't like it if I did or, in this case, if I said that I found that ("my mother her hat")[1] incomprehensible and asked you to interpret for those of us not au fait with the dialect in question.
[1] Why is she wearing my mother on her head?
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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 18:25 GMT David schrieb:
>>David schrieb: > [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > Well, even the trolling "blue sow" managed to pick out that I'd made a > transposition error from the origin example "wife sister husband". Sorry, but I have given up reading the exchanges between you two because they tend to be bad-tempered and I don't know the background to your mutual hostility. spo I could only judge on the basis of what you had written.
In addition, since the original query was posed by a non-native speaker I must admit that I found the use of dialect a bit problematic since most of those that learn English as a second language learn the standard form, which admittedly none of us who are native speakers actually speak (we all have regional and dialect influences on grammar, vocabulary and pronunciation).
> I've given you the URL of an academic web site dealing with the > "s-less" genitive (or even genetive, just to give Shimmin another [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > parts of Yorkshire, the generalisation was to the "s-less" (or > unaltered) genitive. I've lookmed at the page and found it very interesting and instructive.
> Since I cannot but write what is spoken, I cannot write "wife's sister" > as a representation of the Yorkshire s-less genitive "wife sister", nor > similarly with the continuation of the chain. I wouldn't expect you to represent Yorkshire dialect any way other than "as it is spoke".
> I would have thought that being told it concerned the "s-less" > genitive, anyone of moderate intelligence and a reasonable > understanding of English would not find "my wife sister husband has > gout" incapable of being understood (and might even, given previous > posts in the thread, worked out the intended meaning of the erroneous > "my sister wife husband has gout"). Sorry, I hadn't read all teh posts involved - I just stumbled over teh example and found it puzzling - and I must say I also found your sentence about the cat and the dog puzzling as I can't work out the exact relationship between the first string of nouns.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 13 May 2007 18:58 GMT > David schrieb: [Big Snip]
> > I would have thought that being told it concerned the "s-less" > > genitive, anyone of moderate intelligence and a reasonable [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > sentence about the cat and the dog puzzling as I can't work out the > exact relationship between the first string of nouns. Had I been interested in some aspect being discussed but puzzled by it, I would probably have gone up-thread to try and see the start and development of the discussion.
The "s-less" genitive string or chain is not unlike the compound noun which can get just as long and complex, perhaps longer. My example, "kitchen cupboard door handle" links four things to identify: the handle of the door of the cupboard in (of) the kitchen. You wouldn't expect, e.g., "kitchen garage door handle" which doesn't make sense to anyone (except perhaps someone who lives in a house with several garages, one of which is habitually referred to as the "kitchen garage").
"My wife sister husband has gout" seems pretty straightforward to me as a chain of linked relationships: the husband of the sister of my wife. At least it's as comprehensible as "kitchen cupboard door handle" which I don't think you would claim to have problems with.
"Was that our Tom Henry cat the dog just ate?" would be as comprehensible as "kitchen garage door handle" if you can't get beyond the idea that Tom and Henry are the names of different men. And, of course, they can't be: there's no relationship given. "Tom lad, Henry" would be Tom's son; "Tom father, Henry", "Tom brother, Henry", "Tom mate, Henry" are similarly quite explicit. That really leaves the only possibility as "Tom Henry" being the two names of a single individual (and folk being referred to by both forenames was very common until recent times, and not unknown today). Once you realise this simple aspect of English (and it and similar pitfalls occur in standard English), "Tom Henry cat" is no more difficult than "car window" ("car's window" is always possible but not usual; "car windscreen", "car's windscreen", or just "windscreen", are all quite common and no-one gets up a song and dance about not understand one form because they're used to the other).
In the end, I suppose it's about familiarity with the language - as it is with many other aspects of English which when seen without that familiarity of use can seem even more nonsensical.
Hope that gives some clarification.
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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 19:34 GMT David schrieb:
>>David schrieb: > [quoted text clipped - 29 lines] > At least it's as comprehensible as "kitchen cupboard door handle" which > I don't think you would claim to have problems with. With that version I have no problem. My problem was witht he "sister wife" example - from the context it appeared to me that this was a new example, not a repeat of something from earlier.
> "Was that our Tom Henry cat the dog just ate?" would be as > comprehensible as "kitchen garage door handle" if you can't get beyond [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > no-one gets up a song and dance about not understand one form because > they're used to the other). Unless you know that "Tom Henry" must refer to one person the entence is confusing. As a matter of fact in many rural areas of Ireland this type of nomenclature was common ußp to about the Second World War in order to distinguish one man called Tom from anotehr with the same surname. tom Henry was the Tom who was Henry's son and Tom Billy was the Tom who was Billy's son.
Is that the origin of names like Tom Henry in Yorkshire, too?
> In the end, I suppose it's about familiarity with the language - as it > is with many other aspects of English which when seen without that > familiarity of use can seem even more nonsensical. > > Hope that gives some clarification. Thank you.
Regrds, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 13 May 2007 20:24 GMT > David schrieb: > > [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > same surname. tom Henry was the Tom who was Henry's son and Tom > Billy was the Tom who was Billy's son. Well, all I can say is that it's a damned good job you didn't propose an example sentence using that in some other argument or you'd have had folk going on about how totally incomprehensible it was, not to mention taking the piss out of the Irish
> Is that the origin of names like Tom Henry in Yorkshire, too? What's the origin of having several forenames? In some families, only two names are ever used for the eldest sons in line, swapping about at each generation. Would that be indicative of such practice? I think not so. The origin of many surnames derives from a similar practice, though.
But no, generally it's just the giving of two (or more) forenames (as mine are John David) and the use of full forenames probably because in large families (a dozen or more, as there were in my father's family), some children would have the same first name.
> > In the end, I suppose it's about familiarity with the language - as > > it is with many other aspects of English which when seen without [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > > Thank you. I'm willing to make the effort when the interest is genuine. It's these bloody fools who just want to argue for the sake of it who piss me off.
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John Briggs - 13 May 2007 21:27 GMT > What's the origin of having several forenames? It starts with royalty and trickles down the social order. James I was Charles James (as was his second son) and his eldest son was Henry Frederick.
Which means that the catechism, "What is your name? Answer: N or M" (1549) cannot refer to multiple forenames...
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David - 13 May 2007 22:43 GMT > > What's the origin of having several forenames?
> It starts with royalty and trickles down the social order. James I > was Charles James (as was his second son) and his eldest son was > Henry Frederick. (Funny, I thought the Romans had several names.)
But, anyway, surely proof of that assertion would be quite difficult?
> Which means that the catechism, "What is your name? Answer: N or M" > (1549) cannot refer to multiple forenames... So, what would it refer to? I really can't see that being written in without reason - or were they really so psychic?
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John Briggs - 14 May 2007 10:44 GMT >>> What's the origin of having several forenames? > [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > (Funny, I thought the Romans had several names.) Did you think they had several forenames?
> But, anyway, surely proof of that assertion would be quite difficult? Proof of which assertion? Why? Here's another assertion: the fashion spread from France (royalty and aristocracy.)
>> Which means that the catechism, "What is your name? Answer: N or M" >> (1549) cannot refer to multiple forenames... > > So, what would it refer to? I really can't see that being written in > without reason - or were they really so psychic? It's only an assumption that "N or M" is a corruption of "N or NN" [name or names]. Even if it is, it would have to apply to multiple *people*.
 Signature John Briggs
David - 14 May 2007 17:19 GMT > >>> What's the origin of having several forenames? > > [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > > > (Funny, I thought the Romans had several names.)
> Did you think they had several forenames? Probably not; I seem to recall the names acted as several levels of family and clan identification.
> > But, anyway, surely proof of that assertion would be quite > > difficult?
> Proof of which assertion? Why? Here's another assertion: the > fashion spread from France (royalty and aristocracy.) The assertion that no-one before James I had more than one forename.
I don't doubt that it's easy to demonstrate a rise in popularity of multiple forenames, and to track the spread of that popularity but it is simply not possible to prove that no-one had two or more forenames before the naming of Charles James.
> >> Which means that the catechism, "What is your name? Answer: N or > >> M" (1549) cannot refer to multiple forenames... > > > > So, what would it refer to? I really can't see that being written > > in without reason - or were they really so psychic?
> It's only an assumption that "N or M" is a corruption of "N or NN" > [name or names]. Even if it is, it would have to apply to multiple > *people*. 'Could' apply to multiple people. I've forgotten the catechism and can't be bothered to look it up but I suppose you wouldn't have mentioned it unless it could be understood to refer to the several names of one person.
I don't think you know the intent of the writers, nor can you prove that it was unknown 'back then' for some folk to have several forenames.
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John Briggs - 14 May 2007 17:50 GMT >>>>> What's the origin of having several forenames? >>> [quoted text clipped - 21 lines] > is simply not possible to prove that no-one had two or more forenames > before the naming of Charles James. Why is it not possible to prove?
But don't take my word for it; here's William Camden writing in 1614:
"But two christian names are rare in England, and I only remember now his Majesty, who was named Charles James, as the prince his sonne Henry Frederic
: and among private men, Thomas Maria Wingfield, and Sir Thomas Posthumus Hobby."
>>>> Which means that the catechism, "What is your name? Answer: N or >>>> M" (1549) cannot refer to multiple forenames... [quoted text clipped - 14 lines] > that it was unknown 'back then' for some folk to have several > forenames. Nobody knows the intent of the writers - that's the whole point. But we can eliminate certain possibilities.
Why do you imagine that records don't exist, and that I am ignorant of the subject?
 Signature John Briggs
David - 14 May 2007 18:00 GMT > > The assertion that no-one before James I had more than one forename. > > > > I don't doubt that it's easy to demonstrate a rise in popularity of > > multiple forenames, and to track the spread of that popularity but > > it is simply not possible to prove that no-one had two or more > > forenames before the naming of Charles James.
> Why is it not possible to prove? Because to do so you would have to know the complete name of every person who ever lived.
> But don't take my word for it; here's William Camden writing in 1614:
> "But two christian names are rare in England, and I only remember now > his Majesty, who was named Charles James, as the prince his sonne > Henry Frederic : and among private men, Thomas Maria Wingfield, and > Sir Thomas : Posthumus Hobby." And even he says "rare", not "completely unknown". Again, I doubt if he knew the full names of everyone who had ever lived.
> > 'Could' apply to multiple people. I've forgotten the catechism and > > can't be bothered to look it up but I suppose you wouldn't have [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > that it was unknown 'back then' for some folk to have several > > forenames.
> Nobody knows the intent of the writers - that's the whole point. But > we can eliminate certain possibilities. Only if you have proof; and I say again, you can prove that two forenames did happen if you find one single example, but to prove they didn't, you would have to prove that anyone who ever lived did not have two forenames.
> Why do you imagine that records don't exist, and that I am ignorant > of the subject? No, I don't imagine that for a moment. Do you claim that no records were lost or destroyed, or that all namings were recorded?
I'm not disputing any claim that it was rare, just that you can prove it did not happen.
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John Briggs - 14 May 2007 18:06 GMT >>> The assertion that no-one before James I had more than one forename. >>> [quoted text clipped - 43 lines] > I'm not disputing any claim that it was rare, just that you can prove > it did not happen. Why do we need to consider namings that are not recorded?
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David - 14 May 2007 20:45 GMT > Why do we need to consider namings that are not recorded? Because those folk who were named had a name - or names - whether the fact was recorded or not.
If you remember how this started, it was with your assertion that the giving of several forenames began with James I, to which I stated the simple fact of logic that you cannot prove such an assertion without knowing the names of everyone who ever lived (named prior to James I, naturally), whether recorded or not, and that itself is probably quite impossible.
It's not something that bothers me a lot so if you don't wish to pursue the discussion, that's fine by me. However, I'm not trying to get out of it. I'm easy either way. Ever patient with everyone, that's what I am (at least until any insults and trolling become evident).
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John Briggs - 14 May 2007 21:16 GMT >> Why do we need to consider namings that are not recorded? > > Because those folk who were named had a name - or names - whether the > fact was recorded or not. The onus is on you to demonstrate that they might have had names.
> If you remember how this started, it was with your assertion that the > giving of several forenames began with James I, to which I stated the [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > that's what I am (at least until any insults and trolling become > evident). I am perfectly well aware of the philosophical problems of proving a negative, but you have chosen to pick on an example that is remarkably easy. The contention, if you remember, is that multiple forenames began with royalty (French royalty, it would seem) and the aristocracy (again, the French aristocracy), spread to other countries (such as England and Scotland) and percolated downwards. This contention is remarkably easy to demonstrate. I do hope that you are not going to suggest that there are undocumented members of the French and British royalties? The aristocracies are also remarkably well documented. Documentation becomes patchier as you go down the social order, and further back in time.
Now, did you have any serious objections to the contention itself, and if so, what were they?
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David - 14 May 2007 22:24 GMT > >> Why do we need to consider namings that are not recorded? > > > > Because those folk who were named had a name - or names - whether > > the fact was recorded or not.
> The onus is on you to demonstrate that they might have had names. No sir, the onus, if there be one, is on you to prove your assertion, to wit: that no-one before James I (or, if you like, some specific French person or royalty) had more than one forename.
If you persist in this apparently meaningless request: that I demonstrate that persons who had names had names, then all I can say is that if they had names, they had names. Only those with no names had no names.
> > If you remember how this started, it was with your assertion that > > the giving of several forenames began with James I, to which I [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > > that's what I am (at least until any insults and trolling become > > evident).
> I am perfectly well aware of the philosophical problems of proving a > negative, but you have chosen to pick on an example that is [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > remarkably well documented. Documentation becomes patchier as you > go down the social order, and further back in time. There could be undocumented members of any family. As such, we are highly unlikely to know of them, short of an exhaustive use of the TARDIS.
> Now, did you have any serious objections to the contention itself, > and if so, what were they? Yes, you say that it is remarkably easy to demonstrate that multiple forenames began with French Royalty. I await your demonstration which, logic would have me believe, requires you to produce satisfactory proof that no person, royal or otherwise, bore more than a single name prior to whichever French royal you care to propose as the first multiple-named. I again assert without any fear of rational contradiction that such proof is impossible.
Again, I don't contradict you on the fact of the fashion spreading down from royalty - that can obviously be easily demonstrated - only on the claim that no-one before then, royal or common, had more than a single forename.
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Mike Stevens - 14 May 2007 23:05 GMT > Yes, you say that it is remarkably easy to demonstrate that multiple > forenames began with French Royalty. I await your demonstration which, [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > on the claim that no-one before then, royal or common, had more than > a single forename. Far be it from me to intrude into what seems to be a private argument. But aren't you both pushing the concept of "forename" back a but further in history than is really tenable?
In Roman times, people (or at least the middle classes and above) had three names, each of which had a different connotation (roughly speaking, one used only by friends and family, one official personal name and one family name). Later and more northern practice seems to have most people with a single name - no forename, no surname, just a name. Then the practice of surnames came in - some of them trade-related (Smith), some place-related (Lichfield) , some ancestry-related (Davidson) (possibly derived from Scandinavian practice). But Royalty by convention didn't use surnames as such, but their titles. Elizabeth I wasn't known as "Elizabeth Tudor" but as "Elizabeth of England". Her father and grandfather were neither of them known (after they came to the throne) as "Henry Tudor" but both as "Roy Harry", "Roy" being the title (spelled "Roi" in other times & places). I believe that many aristocrats did the same.
While it seems to me fairy likely that royal and aristocratic families may have taken to multiple (fore-)names to preserve family traditions (mustn't upset either granddad), I see it as equally likely that well-to-do merchant families might well have done the same, for similar reasons.
There's a whole load of hypotheses to juggle with. What this thread needs now is some solid evidence. Otherwise let's all just shut up.
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John Briggs - 15 May 2007 00:25 GMT > While it seems to me fairly likely that royal and aristocratic > families may have taken to multiple (fore-)names to preserve family [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > There's a whole load of hypotheses to juggle with. What this thread > needs now is some solid evidence. Otherwise let's all just shut up. Multiple forenames only appear in the 16th century.
William Camden writing in 1614:
"But two christian names are rare in England, and I only remember now his Majesty, who was named Charles James, as the prince his sonne Henry Frederic
: and among private men, Thomas Maria Wingfield, and Sir Thomas Posthumus Hobby."
James was born in 1566.
Henri III of France, fourth son of Catherine de' Medici, had been baptised Alexandre-Édouard in 1551.
 Signature John Briggs
Ildhund - 15 May 2007 16:08 GMT > Henri III of France, fourth son of Catherine de' Medici, had been baptised > Alexandre-Édouard in 1551. Leonie Frieda's splendid biography "Catherine de Medici" (W&N, London 2003) opens with the words "Caterina Maria Romula de Medici was born .[in]. 1519." Any advance (or perhaps retard)?
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David - 15 May 2007 09:23 GMT [Snip}
> There's a whole load of hypotheses to juggle with. What this thread > needs now is some solid evidence. Otherwise let's all just shut up. Don't look at me, guv. All I did was ask a rhetorical question.
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Mike Stevens - 15 May 2007 09:56 GMT > [Snip} > >> There's a whole load of hypotheses to juggle with. What this thread >> needs now is some solid evidence. Otherwise let's all just shut up. > > Don't look at me, guv. All I did was ask a rhetorical question. The trouble with rhetorical questions is that some people will insist on trying to answer them. :-)
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David - 15 May 2007 17:19 GMT > > [Snip} > > [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > > > Don't look at me, guv. All I did was ask a rhetorical question.
> The trouble with rhetorical questions is that some people will insist > on trying to answer them. :-) Some folk will answer anything!
Actually, I've been thinking about this problem of multiple names. Presumably Mr Briggs is thinking only of registered Christian names and, perhaps unwisely, I referred to them as 'forenames' which rather does necessitate the use of a surname, so restricting us to comparatively recent times. If rather we think more along the lines of personal names or the name(s) by which a person is normally known by his family and peers, then it is obvious that we have clear documentary evidence of multiple names from millenia ago.
As to the N or M in the catechism, possibly it is to allow the participation of several persons - as Mr Briggs says -, but it struck me that at the time, many good country folk were still secret worshippers of the British or English gods. Requiring them to declare their worship of foreign gods - as the catechism does - might well necessitate ensuring that their allegiance was not pledged solely in their (single, baptismal) Christian name but in every name by which they were known - including nicknames, coven names, whatever. I.e. it removed a possible let-out clause. Maybe fanciful, but just a thought.
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Blue Sow - 14 May 2007 11:17 GMT > Sorry, but I have given up reading the exchanges between you two because > they tend to be bad-tempered and I don't know the background to your > mutual hostility. spo I could only judge on the basis of what you had > written. Sorry if the exchange between myself and 'David' has in anyway spoiled your enjoyment of the group. I have no idea why he was so unpleasant with me and some other contributors. I have 'killed' him now, thus avoiding any temptation to engage in a similar exchange in future.
 Signature Blue Sow
David - 14 May 2007 17:12 GMT > > Sorry, but I have given up reading the exchanges between you two > > because they tend to be bad-tempered and I don't know the > > background to your mutual hostility. spo I could only judge on the > > basis of what you had written.
> Sorry if the exchange between myself and 'David' has in anyway > spoiled your enjoyment of the group. I have no idea why he was so > unpleasant with me and some other contributors. I have 'killed' him > now, thus avoiding any temptation to engage in a similar exchange in > future. Nope, you haven't killed me; I'm still here.
Nor am I unpleasant with anyone except in response to unpleasantness or insult directed toward me.
I was perfectly pleasant to you and strove to be as helpful as I could to your questions about what I'd written. That is until you started writing such sarcastic and condescending things as:
"I appreciate that English can be a difficult language to learn and I suspect that most here merely wish to help - some obviously resent assistance. Good luck with your learning anyway."
Even so, I joked in reply, only to find that in the next post you made a remark which, to all intents and purposes could only be understood as accusing me of lying. Nor did you see fit to apologise for the remark when I produced web proof of what I had said.
With each successive post you made, the level of insults coming from you increased.
I'm glad that you won't read this and won't reply. However, since you see fit to write complete fabrications about me, I only deem it right that I put the record straight.
You, whoever you are hiding behind the pseudonym "blue sow", are a liar and a troll.
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Molly Mockford - 13 May 2007 20:43 GMT At 18:06:02 on Sun, 13 May 2007, David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid> wrote in <4ee2708dbcnospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
>Since I cannot but write what is spoken, Now, this does puzzle me. All of us here make a distinction between spoken and written English (even those who are not aware of doing so). By and large, we learn spoken English at home and we learn written English at school; and the two never overlap 100%, no matter in which part of the country we are raised. Even the kiddies who have invented their own txtspk are making a distinction between spoken English and written (of a sort) English.
You, David, are no exception. Something like the following is impossible to render in spoken English without re-casting it:
>And if I were "blue sow" I might suggest "it may well be an example of >an idiolect." You wouldn't like it if I did or, in this case, if I said [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > >[1] Why is she wearing my mother on her head? I am notorious in certain groups for my fondness for footnotes (particularly late on a Saturday night) - but not even I would attempt to introduce one into spoken English.
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David - 13 May 2007 22:39 GMT > At 18:06:02 on Sun, 13 May 2007, David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid> > wrote in <4ee2708dbcnospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
> >Since I cannot but write what is spoken,
> Now, this does puzzle me. All of us here make a distinction between > spoken and written English (even those who are not aware of doing [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > who have invented their own txtspk are making a distinction between > spoken English and written (of a sort) English. True, but if I were to say that in Yorkshire there was a form of genitive which differed from the standard English genitive, and that "wife's sister's husband" and "Tom Henry's cat" illustrated it, you might well wonder just how it differed.
Were I to say that it was an "s-less" genitive which in Yorkshire dialect produced examples like, "our Jack's lad", you might well say, "but that's not an "s-less" genitive, it's just the standard English (Saxon) genitive.
should I reply to that saying that I thought it best not to write what was actually said, lest it produce great misunderstanding, argument, rancour, and trolling, but to make distinction between the spoken and written phrase, you might well ask what bloody use it was me writing anything in the first place?
One further thing. Were I just to mention the fact of the "s-less" genitive, I might well be asked to give an example (after being totally disbelieved for a start by those whose minds are too small to think any current English other than "standard" English is at all possible), at which point I'd be no better off than where I started in the first place.
> You, David, are no exception. Something like the following is > impossible to render in spoken English without re-casting it:
> >And if I were "blue sow" I might suggest "it may well be an example > >of an idiolect." You wouldn't like it if I did or, in this case, if [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > > >[1] Why is she wearing my mother on her head?
> I am notorious in certain groups for my fondness for footnotes > (particularly late on a Saturday night) - but not even I would > attempt to introduce one into spoken English. That's fair enough but attempting to prove by such an example that I must translate dialect English into standard English in order to provide an illustration of dialect is just plain ludicrous.
Or maybe it's not? If you've been following the thread, you ought to know by now how the Yorkshire genitive is used. Perhaps you could shew me how you would take that 'spoken' English and recast it into 'written' English so that all these trolls and Einde would understand the meaning whilst at the same time understand the "s-less" genitive.
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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 23:58 GMT David schrieb: <snip>
> Or maybe it's not? If you've been following the thread, you ought to > know by now how the Yorkshire genitive is used. Perhaps you could shew > me how you would take that 'spoken' English and recast it into > 'written' English so that all these trolls and Einde would understand > the meaning whilst at the same time understand the "s-less" genitive. H9owever, it might have helped if after giving the dialect version you had provided a "translation" into standard English. given that you were trying to illustrate a Yorkshire non-Saxon genitive there was no way that those of us who hadn't encountered this structure before and were unfamiliar with naming conventions in Yorkshire would know that Tom Henry didn't mean the same as "Tom's Henry" in standard English. The latter might sound clunky in standard English, but that doesn't necessarily mean that it must sound clunky in Yorkshire dialect. After all, "my sister wife husband", to cite the correct version of the first example I came across, doesn't just sound clunky in standard English it sounds totally wrong.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 14 May 2007 09:43 GMT > David schrieb: <snip> > > [quoted text clipped - 16 lines] > correct version of the first example I came across, doesn't just > sound clunky in standard English it sounds totally wrong. "my sister wife husband" was a later typo (or a spelling error, according to Ben Shimmin), the correct version of which, "my wife sister husband", was in the post to which you replied initially and where the concept was introduced:
=====================================================================
In article <4ee17c9326nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>, David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid> wrote:
> In article <slrn.2007-05-11.19-59-03@candide.bas.me.uk>, Ben Shimmin > <bas@llamaselector.com> wrote:
> > I'm sure that you could spin it out into a 17 page article and win > > the Pulitzer Prize, but `By then' used in this way still sounds > > clunky to me.
> Surely it is in the nature of (the English) language to sound clunky > to those who are used to different idioms, or dialects?
> For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort > to English to me. =====================================================================
I can understand that you might find the "s-less" genitive unusual but given the prevalence of dependency strings in English compound nouns, another e.g., "desk drawer lock" (the lock of the drawer of my desk), the form of which seems to me to be identical to the Yorkshire genitive string, I really don't see why you should find it so difficult to work out the meaning.
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Molly Mockford - 13 May 2007 23:59 GMT At 22:39:44 on Sun, 13 May 2007, David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid> wrote in <4ee2899c8dnospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
>That's fair enough but attempting to prove by such an example that I >must translate dialect English into standard English in order to >provide an illustration of dialect is just plain ludicrous. I was attempting to prove no such thing, as a re-reading of my post will demonstrate. I was taking issue with your assertion that "I cannot but write what is spoken" - in other words, that you were incapable of writing anything other than spoken English - and demonstrating that you were, indeed, writing written English.
(Oh, and by the way, I also interpreted your riddle as meaning the cat which belonged to Henry who belonged to our Tom.)
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David - 14 May 2007 10:02 GMT > At 22:39:44 on Sun, 13 May 2007, David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid> > wrote in <4ee2899c8dnospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
> >That's fair enough but attempting to prove by such an example that I > >must translate dialect English into standard English in order to > >provide an illustration of dialect is just plain ludicrous.
> I was attempting to prove no such thing, as a re-reading of my post > will demonstrate. I was taking issue with your assertion that "I > cannot but write what is spoken" - in other words, that you were > incapable of writing anything other than spoken English - and > demonstrating that you were, indeed, writing written English. Which is getting into very silly nitpicking. Of course what I write is written. What I hear is spoken. Are you saying, then, that it is impossible to write down what one hears?
I read your post. Not only that, I quoted it when I replied to you. Yes, we learn spoken English and we learn written English. Spoken English is spoken; written English is written. Spoken English quoted in writing is ? You failed to say what that was. Would you like to tell me? And when I say "I cannot but write what is spoken", have you not the wit to understand that I wish to write down as closely as possible the words and letters which most nearly represent the spoken words and sounds?
I ask you again, if I hear "wife sister" as the spoken words and sounds, what written words and letters should I use to represent them?
> (Oh, and by the way, I also interpreted your riddle as meaning the > cat which belonged to Henry who belonged to our Tom.) It wasn't a riddle. And I'm surprised you managed to reason out the facts of belonging given that there were no terminal esses to aid you.
Standard English is full of instances where several meanings can be taken (and lawyers find rich pickings from that fact) but we don't have this sort of song and dance routine every time anybody writes anything.
Folk in other parts of the country say some quite ludicrous things. I said my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort of English from me, and when he says "I'm off down the pub", should I get my knickers in a twist because I don't find him rottingly smelly in the alehouse cellar where, logically (working out his riddle), he should be?
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Einde O'Callaghan - 12 May 2007 19:10 GMT David schrieb:
>>>For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different >>>sort to English to me. [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > > (Of course, you might prefer "than me".) That wasn't really what I was querying - what I found strange is "my wife sister husband". Is this really Yorkshire dialect?
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 12 May 2007 21:34 GMT > David schrieb: > > [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > That wasn't really what I was querying - what I found strange is "my > wife sister husband". Is this really Yorkshire dialect? (You've replied to my reply to Tony and not to my reply to your previous post.)
I don't know whether it's purely Yorkshire but yes, although a string of relationships such as that would probably not be usual. Something more common might be, "Is that our John wife handbag?"
As I said, I think it's possibly Norse in origin as opposed to Saxon or Danish - at least that's what I've heard/read in the past.
It might, however, simply be a similar construct to e.g. "there's a chip in my car windscreen" which is as readily understood and accepted as "there's a chip in my car's windscreen".
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Thomas Hejl Pilgaard - 13 May 2007 10:50 GMT >> David schrieb: >>> [quoted text clipped - 20 lines] > As I said, I think it's possibly Norse in origin as opposed to Saxon > or Danish - at least that's what I've heard/read in the past. I'm not sure if it means anything, but we do still have such strings of relationship in danish. Only, we combine the words, as we have a tendency to do:
Strings of relationship used today: "morbror" - mor bror - mother brother (uncle ("onkel")) "farbror" - far bror - father brother (uncle ("onkel")) "mormor", "morfar", "farmor" & "farfar".
More compound words (is that what you'd call them?): "maelkejunge" - maelke junge - milk jug "graesstraa" - graes strå - grass straw "doerhaengsel" - doer haengsel - door hinge "sandorm" - sand orm - sand worm
As for the use of strings of relationships in english, their use sounds proper to me for objects, but not for people. There is no rule to that effect?
David - 13 May 2007 12:18 GMT > > As I said, I think it's possibly Norse in origin as opposed to Saxon > > or Danish - at least that's what I've heard/read in the past. I think I must have remembered wrongly about the Norse - although that's possibly the reason why language changes throughout the rest of the country didn't happen in Yorkshire (except perhaps in the northern part of Yorkshire where the great Abbeys were).
> I'm not sure if it means anything, but we do still have such > strings of relationship in danish. Only, we combine the words, > as we have a tendency to do:
> Strings of relationship used today: > "morbror" - mor bror - mother brother (uncle ("onkel")) > "farbror" - far bror - father brother (uncle ("onkel")) > "mormor", "morfar", "farmor" & "farfar". And this appears to shew genetives with no modification (e.g. the "es" or "'s" Saxon genetive of standard English) which is what occurs in Yorkshire dialect English.
> More compound words (is that what you'd call them?): > "maelkejunge" - maelke junge - milk jug > "graesstraa" - graes strå - grass straw > "doerhaengsel" - doer haengsel - door hinge > "sandorm" - sand orm - sand worm
> As for the use of strings of relationships in english, their > use sounds proper to me for objects, but not for people. > There is no rule to that effect? I think they're called noun phrases or somesuch; grammar really isn't my strong point.
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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 15:50 GMT Thomas Hejl Pilgaard schrieb:
<snip>
> More compound words (is that what you'd call them?): Compound nouns is the proper term - all Germanic languages see to employ this type of structure - although German can take it to extremes.
For example, the regulations governing shipping on the Danube are called the "Donausschifffahrtspolizeiverordnung" and there are several limited companies containing the word(s) "Donauschifffahrtsaktiengesellschaft".
There are however quite a few even longer examples. Most of them in German will however contain at least one genitive "s" (Saxon genitive) somewhere or other.
> "maelkejunge" - maelke junge - milk jug > "graesstraa" - graes strå - grass straw > "doerhaengsel" - doer haengsel - door hinge > "sandorm" - sand orm - sand worm These would be regarded as compound nouns in English too, even though they are written as two words, as they refer to one concept.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
John Briggs - 13 May 2007 18:54 GMT > These would be regarded as compound nouns in English too, even though > they are written as two words, as they refer to one concept. Hence "headline language", of which the classic example was:
Macmillan refuses bank rate rise leak probe.
 Signature John Briggs
John Hall - 13 May 2007 19:55 GMT >Hence "headline language", of which the classic example was: > >Macmillan refuses bank rate rise leak probe. Shouldn't that have been "Macmillan bank rate rise leak probe refusal"?
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David - 13 May 2007 20:15 GMT > > These would be regarded as compound nouns in English too, even > > though they are written as two words, as they refer to one concept.
> Hence "headline language", of which the classic example was:
> Macmillan refuses bank rate rise leak probe. Totally incomprehensible! We could discuss it for months....
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David - 12 May 2007 22:40 GMT > That wasn't really what I was querying - what I found strange is "my > wife sister husband". Is this really Yorkshire dialect? Found a reference to the "s-less" genetive having its origins in Old English and resisting change in Middle English.
http://www.yorksj.ac.uk/dialect/megramma.htm
Note this refers to words with specific endings (already ends in "s", regular genetive in "en", ending in "er" with no "es" genetive) but in my experience is extended to others.
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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 07:45 GMT David schrieb:
>>That wasn't really what I was querying - what I found strange is "my >>wife sister husband". Is this really Yorkshire dialect? [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > regular genetive in "en", ending in "er" with no "es" genetive) but in > my experience is extended to others. Thank you - I hadn't encountered this form before. However, it's now clear that it isn't standard English, which is my interest as a teacher of English as a second language.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 13 May 2007 09:00 GMT > David schrieb: > > [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > clear that it isn't standard English, which is my interest as a > teacher of English as a second language. I never claimed it was "standard" English but an English dialect - yet still a valid form of English.
Most spoken native English is dialect to some greater or lesser extent; standard English is that to which our best literary efforts usually get edited.
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Einde O'Callaghan - 11 May 2007 12:45 GMT Matthew Huntbach schrieb:
>> Bygvir Melkerson schrieb: > [quoted text clipped - 18 lines] > "In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training sessions, > by then she would swim 2 miles every week". I understand what you're trying to say, but the sentence doesn't feel quite right to me.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Mark Wallace - 11 May 2007 19:21 GMT >> Bygvir Melkerson schrieb: > [quoted text clipped - 18 lines] > "In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training sessions, > by then she would swim 2 miles every week". You'd get away with that in speech, but I'd blue-pencil any written example of it I came across, if that full point remained after "week". Either use the past progressive, or qualify the use of "would" with a clause that gives some kind of condition: -- "~~ by then she would swim 2 miles every week, before her breakfast on Thursday."
But even then, the past progressive or simple past are preferable.
Mark Wallace - 11 May 2007 19:14 GMT > Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall? > > "By then, Diane WOULD HAVE swum 2 miles" Indicative, conditional, or subjunctive.
> "By then, Diane SHOULD HAVE swum 2 miles" Indicative, subjunctive, or imperative -- and conditional, at a push.
> "By then, Diane COULD HAVE swum 2 miles" Indicative or conditional.
However, if they are the whole sentences, and no conditions are set in other sentences in the same paragraphs as they, scratch the conditional and subjunctive options.
Thomas Hejl Pilgaard - 11 May 2007 19:33 GMT >> Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall? >> [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > in other sentences in the same paragraphs as they, scratch the > conditional and subjunctive options. Okay, so a little more fodder, then:
"John always spent an hour in the sauna before returning. By then, Diane would have swum 2 miles."
"John decided to spend an hour in the sauna before returning. By then, Diane should have swum 2 miles."
"John realized, it would take him an hour before he would be back. By then, Diane could have swum 2 miles."
Einde O'Callaghan - 11 May 2007 22:13 GMT Thomas Hejl Pilgaard schrieb:
>>>Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall? >>> [quoted text clipped - 24 lines] > "John realized, it would take him an hour before he would be back. By then, > Diane could have swum 2 miles." These are all connected with habitual action in the past - not conditional at all.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Mark Wallace - 12 May 2007 17:55 GMT >>> Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall? >>> [quoted text clipped - 24 lines] > "John realized, it would take him an hour before he would be back. By > then, Diane could have swum 2 miles." I don't see your point. If you're saying that completely recasting a sentence can give a clause a different meaning, then I have to agree with you.
David - 12 May 2007 18:14 GMT > >>> Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall? > >>> [quoted text clipped - 25 lines] > > "John realized, it would take him an hour before he would be back. > > By then, Diane could have swum 2 miles."
> I don't see your point. If you're saying that completely recasting a > sentence can give a clause a different meaning, then I have to agree > with you. But he's not "completely recasting" the sentences, he's merely providing the context by a previous sentence - as you asked.
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Thomas Hejl Pilgaard - 13 May 2007 10:54 GMT >>>>> Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall? >>>>> [quoted text clipped - 32 lines] > But he's not "completely recasting" the sentences, he's merely > providing the context by a previous sentence - as you asked. Indeed, that is what I thought I was doing. Providing the context, which I assumed was implied all along. I would never start a sentence with "By then..." unless it fit into a context set by a previous sentence. Would anyone?
David - 13 May 2007 12:41 GMT > > But he's not "completely recasting" the sentences, he's merely > > providing the context by a previous sentence - as you asked.
> Indeed, that is what I thought I was doing. > Providing the context, which I assumed was implied all along. > I would never start a sentence with "By then..." unless it fit > into a context set by a previous sentence. Would anyone? Dunno about that... There's some very strange native English speakers around here!
But no, I wouldn't.
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