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[Conjugation/tense] Would have

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Thomas Hejl Pilgaard - 08 May 2007 18:55 GMT
Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall?

"By then, Diane WOULD HAVE swum 2 miles"
"By then, Diane SHOULD HAVE swum 2 miles"
"By then, Diane COULD HAVE swum 2 miles"
Einde O'Callaghan - 08 May 2007 21:23 GMT
Thomas Hejl Pilgaard schrieb:
> Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall?
>
> "By then, Diane WOULD HAVE swum 2 miles"
> "By then, Diane SHOULD HAVE swum 2 miles"
> "By then, Diane COULD HAVE swum 2 miles"

It's often called the conditional - although technically speaking the
conditional is a mode (or mood), not a tense.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Einde O'Callaghan - 08 May 2007 21:25 GMT
Einde O'Callaghan schrieb:
> Thomas Hejl Pilgaard schrieb:
>
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> It's often called the conditional - although technically speaking the
> conditional is a mode (or mood), not a tense.

I forgot to mention that it's the perfect conditional

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Bygvir Melkerson - 09 May 2007 13:55 GMT
>>> "By then, Diane WOULD HAVE swum 2 miles"
>>> "By then, Diane SHOULD HAVE swum 2 miles"
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>>
>I forgot to mention that it's the perfect conditional

And the present conditional is "By then, Diane would have swim 2
miles"?
Einde O'Callaghan - 09 May 2007 15:05 GMT
Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:

>>>>"By then, Diane WOULD HAVE swum 2 miles"
>>>>"By then, Diane SHOULD HAVE swum 2 miles"
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> And the present conditional is "By then, Diane would have swim 2
> miles"?

The present conditional is "would swim" but it wouldn't make any sense
in the example sentence, which is about the past.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Einde O'Callaghan - 09 May 2007 15:08 GMT
Einde O'Callaghan schrieb:
> Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:
>
[quoted text clipped - 12 lines]
> The present conditional is "would swim" but it wouldn't make any sense
> in the example sentence, which is about the past.

It's probably worth pointing out that "would", "should" and "could" have
several other usages besides the conditional.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Thomas Hejl Pilgaard - 10 May 2007 19:00 GMT
> Einde O'Callaghan schrieb:
>> Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:
[quoted text clipped - 18 lines]
>
> Regards, Einde O'Callaghan

Thank you very much.
Bygvir Melkerson - 09 May 2007 17:09 GMT
>> And the present conditional is "By then, Diane would have swim 2
>> miles"?
>
>The present conditional is "would swim" but it wouldn't make any sense
>in the example sentence, which is about the past.

I thought 'by then' means in German 'bis dahin', maybe something like
until then, until this moment or so. If this interpretation is
correct, why does the pres. cond. make no sense? (By then, Diane would
swim 2 miles = She don't swim, but if she does it, then 2 miles)?
Einde O'Callaghan - 09 May 2007 21:12 GMT
Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:

>>>And the present conditional is "By then, Diane would have swim 2
>>>miles"?
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> correct, why does the pres. cond. make no sense? (By then, Diane would
> swim 2 miles = She don't swim, but if she does it, then 2 miles)?

In English it wzuld have to be "By now she would have swum 2 miles".
Perfect because it started in the past and continues up to the present.
Indeed in this particular context it would always be the perfect because
the swimming started some time before the time in question (in this case
not rel time but speculative time). And "then" is only used for some
point in time distant from the present.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Bygvir Melkerson - 10 May 2007 07:10 GMT
>In English it wzuld have to be "By now she would have swum 2 miles".
>Perfect because it started in the past and continues up to the present.
>Indeed in this particular context it would always be the perfect because
>the swimming started some time before the time in question (in this case
>not rel time but speculative time). And "then" is only used for some
>point in time distant from the present.

OK, I see. So in English you only use the present cond. in a case
like: I'm not hungry, but if I were hungry I would eat something?
Einde O'Callaghan - 10 May 2007 08:49 GMT
Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:

>>In English it wzuld have to be "By now she would have swum 2 miles".
>>Perfect because it started in the past and continues up to the present.
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
> OK, I see. So in English you only use the present cond. in a case
> like: I'm not hungry, but if I were hungry I would eat something?

I wouldn't say "only". he perfect is used when there is an element of
"pastness", so to say, an dthe present when there is an element of
"presentness" or "futurity". And as I mentioned earlier there are other
usages of "would".

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Bygvir Melkerson - 10 May 2007 12:25 GMT
>I wouldn't say "only". he perfect is used when there is an element of
>"pastness", so to say, an dthe present when there is an element of
>"presentness" or "futurity".

OK

>And as I mentioned earlier there are other
>usages of "would".

You mean sentences like 'When my parents were away, my grandmother
would take care of me'? This axample is from the English-German Oxford
Dictionary. In the German translation there are no traces af any
conditional.

BTW, I'm looking for a really god English-English dictionary. I have
only one from my schooltime, about 35 years old. Price and size
doesn't matter, many examples of usage is what I'm looking for. Is
there a book you could recommend?
Paul Burke - 10 May 2007 14:07 GMT
> BTW, I'm looking for a really god English-English dictionary.

You don't usually get much usage in an E_E dictionary. This is my favourite:
http://www.chambersharrap.co.uk/chambers/books/dictionaries/index.shtml

but there's more etymology than usage.

There are various books on usage (idioms, phrasal verbs etc.) in the
books index: http://www.chambersharrap.co.uk/chambers/books/index.shtml.

Paul VBurke
Blue Sow - 10 May 2007 15:54 GMT
> BTW, I'm looking for a really good English-English dictionary.

My favourite is:

http://www.oup.com/uk/catalogue/?ci=9780198605751&view=ask

It includes sample quotations but limited usage.

This smaller dictionary has more usage but less dictionary

http://www.oup.com/uk/catalogue/?ci=9780198610571&view=ask

although I have not used that version.

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Bygvir Melkerson - 10 May 2007 16:31 GMT
>This smaller dictionary has more usage but less dictionary

Thanks both of you. I will take a further look at the bigger one, this
book is availiable at the wholesalers in Germany within a few days.
Einde O'Callaghan - 10 May 2007 20:08 GMT
Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:

>>I wouldn't say "only". he perfect is used when there is an element of
>>"pastness", so to say, an dthe present when there is an element of
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> Dictionary. In the German translation there are no traces af any
> conditional.

That's one example - for example, it often correspondes to the German
past subjunctive (Konjunktiv II), which may not necessarily have
anything to do with conditionality, and it is also used in indirect
speech without any element of conditionality

> BTW, I'm looking for a really god English-English dictionary. I have
> only one from my schooltime, about 35 years old. Price and size
> doesn't matter, many examples of usage is what I'm looking for. Is
> there a book you could recommend?

Som of the learners' dictionaries give some guidance on usage, but I
think a guide to usage may be more useful if you want help on a fairly
high level of sophistication. I'd recommend Michael Swan's "Modern
English Usage", which IIRC is published by Oxford University Press. The
current edition was published in 1995 but it's still an invaluable guide
to many of the problems that advanced students of English have.

You can actually browse the book at
<http://www.amazon.de/gp/reader/0194420981/ref=sib_dp_pt/302-5992301-1015206#read
er-page
>

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
John Briggs - 10 May 2007 21:33 GMT
> Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 31 lines]
> You can actually browse the book at
> http://www.amazon.de/gp/reader/0194420981/ref=sib_dp_pt/302-5992301-1015206#read
er-page

That's "Practical English Usage" - "Modern English Usage " was Fowler (now
"Fowler's Modern English Usage" by Burchfield...)
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John Briggs

Einde O'Callaghan - 10 May 2007 23:07 GMT
John Briggs schrieb:

>>Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 34 lines]
> That's "Practical English Usage" - "Modern English Usage " was Fowler (now
> "Fowler's Modern English Usage" by Burchfield...)

Alzheimer's or something seems to be affecting me - I had the facsimile
of the front cover of the Swan book in front of me when I wrote that! :-((

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Matthew Huntbach - 11 May 2007 09:18 GMT
> Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:

>>>>> "By then, Diane WOULD HAVE swum 2 miles"
>>>>> "By then, Diane SHOULD HAVE swum 2 miles"
>>>>> "By then, Diane COULD HAVE swum 2 miles"

>>>> It's often called the conditional - although technically speaking the
>>>> conditional is a mode (or mood), not a tense.

>>> I forgot to mention that it's the perfect conditional

>> And the present conditional is "By then, Diane would have swim 2
>> miles"?

> The present conditional is "would swim" but it wouldn't make any sense in the
> example sentence, which is about the past.

It makes sense when "would swim" is used to mean a regular occurrence,
and "then" means the time when this had become a regular occurrence.

"In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training sessions,
 by then she would swim 2 miles every week".

Matthew Huntbach
Ben Shimmin - 11 May 2007 12:01 GMT
Matthew Huntbach <mmh@dcs.qmul.ac.uk>:
>> Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:

[...]

>>> And the present conditional is "By then, Diane would have swim 2
>>> miles"?
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> "In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training sessions,
>   by then she would swim 2 miles every week".

I'm not sure `by then' is idiomatic in that sentence.  Certainly it sounds
wrong to me.  `back then' makes more sense:

 `In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming.  In her training sessions
  back then she would swim two miles every week.'
OR
  back then she swam two miles every week.'
OR
  back then she was swimming two miles every week.'

These all mean approximately the same thing, or are certainly close enough
that, in conversation or writing, no casual practitioner of English would
worry about the difference.

b.

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David - 11 May 2007 16:44 GMT
> Matthew Huntbach <mmh@dcs.qmul.ac.uk>:
> >> Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:

> [...]

> >>> And the present conditional is "By then, Diane would have swim 2
> >>> miles"?
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> > "In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training
> > sessions, by then she would swim 2 miles every week".

> I'm not sure `by then' is idiomatic in that sentence.  Certainly it
> sounds wrong to me.  `back then' makes more sense:

Surely that depends on the intended sense?

>   `In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming.  In her training
> sessions back then she would swim two miles every week.' OR back then
> she swam two miles every week.' OR back then she was swimming two
> miles every week.'

> These all mean approximately the same thing, or are certainly close
> enough that, in conversation or writing, no casual practitioner of
> English would worry about the difference.

"Back then" doesn't mean the same as "by then". The latter has an
implied - possibly essential - meaning of prior ongoing practice; the
former is purely retrospective.

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Ben Shimmin - 11 May 2007 17:26 GMT
David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
>> Matthew Huntbach <mmh@dcs.qmul.ac.uk>:

[...]

>> >> The present conditional is "would swim" but it wouldn't make any
>> >> sense in the example sentence, which is about the past.
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
>
> Surely that depends on the intended sense?

It sounds wrong, whatever sense was intended.

>>   `In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming.  In her training
>> sessions back then she would swim two miles every week.' OR back then
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> implied - possibly essential - meaning of prior ongoing practice; the
> former is purely retrospective.

Sure, I accept that `back then' is imprecise, but `by then' doesn't work in
that sentence.  It's not idiomatic.  If you want better precision and
a turn of phrase that actually sounds natural, I guess you might say:

 `In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming.  In her training sessions
  prior to that victory, she would swim two miles every week.'

(assuming that that is what `by then' is intended to mean here; if she
also trained by swimming two miles every week after her victory, perhaps
in preparation for future competitions, you would need to meddle with the
sentence even further).

Again, `she swam' and `she was swimming' can replace `she would swim' with
relatively little difference in meaning.

b.

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  contrast with both shoes and pants. The English, always the eccentrics,
  wear maroon socks with everything!'     -- thesartorialist.blogspot.com

David - 11 May 2007 20:19 GMT
> David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
> >> Matthew Huntbach <mmh@dcs.qmul.ac.uk>:

> [...]

> >> >> The present conditional is "would swim" but it wouldn't make
> >> >> any sense in the example sentence, which is about the past.
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
> >
> > Surely that depends on the intended sense?

> It sounds wrong, whatever sense was intended.

To you, perhaps.

But I agree that the punctuation and order makes it awkward.

> >>   `In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming.  In her training
> >> sessions back then she would swim two miles every week.' OR back
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> > implied - possibly essential - meaning of prior ongoing practice;
> > the former is purely retrospective.

> Sure, I accept that `back then' is imprecise, but `by then' doesn't
> work in that sentence.  It's not idiomatic.  If you want better
> precision and a turn of phrase that actually sounds natural, I guess
> you might say:

>   `In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming.  In her training
>    sessions prior to that victory, she would swim two miles every
>    week.'

Try some preceding information:

"Diane began her swimming career in 1980, at first managing no more
than a length at the local pool but soon increasing the distance. In
1990, she won a gold medal for swimming. By then she would swim 2 miles
every week in her training sessions."

> (assuming that that is what `by then' is intended to mean here; if
> she also trained by swimming two miles every week after her victory,
> perhaps in preparation for future competitions, you would need to
> meddle with the sentence even further).

> Again, `she swam' and `she was swimming' can replace `she would swim'
> with relatively little difference in meaning.

Yes, but "back then" compares with today; "by then" indicates a process
culminating at that point (the winning of the medal).

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Ben Shimmin - 11 May 2007 21:08 GMT
David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

[...]

>>   `In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming.  In her training
>>    sessions prior to that victory, she would swim two miles every
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> 1990, she won a gold medal for swimming. By then she would swim 2 miles
> every week in her training sessions."

I'm sure that you could spin it out into a 17 page article and win the
Pulitzer Prize, but `By then' used in this way still sounds clunky to me.

b.

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David - 11 May 2007 21:41 GMT
> David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

> [...]

> >>   `In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming.  In her training
> >>    sessions prior to that victory, she would swim two miles every
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> > In 1990, she won a gold medal for swimming. By then she would swim
> > 2 miles every week in her training sessions."

> I'm sure that you could spin it out into a 17 page article and win
> the Pulitzer Prize, but `By then' used in this way still sounds
> clunky to me.

Surely it is in the nature of (the English) language to sound clunky to
those who are used to different idioms, or dialects?

For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort
to English to me.

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Ben Shimmin - 11 May 2007 21:54 GMT
David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

[...]

>> I'm sure that you could spin it out into a 17 page article and win
>> the Pulitzer Prize, but `By then' used in this way still sounds
>> clunky to me.
>
> Surely it is in the nature of (the English) language to sound clunky to
> those who are used to different idioms, or dialects?

Yes, and I'm sure you can extend that argument so that all kinds of
gibberish containing all manner of solecisms could be considered `English'.
I don't think that's really of any help to the original poster, though.

> For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort
> to English to me.

Hopefully a slightly more intelligible one!

b.

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David - 11 May 2007 22:56 GMT
> David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

> [...]

> >> I'm sure that you could spin it out into a 17 page article and win
> >> the Pulitzer Prize, but `By then' used in this way still sounds
> >> clunky to me.
> >
> > Surely it is in the nature of (the English) language to sound
> > clunky to those who are used to different idioms, or dialects?

> Yes, and I'm sure you can extend that argument so that all kinds of
> gibberish containing all manner of solecisms could be considered
> `English'. I don't think that's really of any help to the original
> poster, though.

Even those used by you, no doubt.

Are you really saying that you don't understand the difference in
meaning of the standard English "by then" and your modern (American?)
English "back then"?

"By then", "by that time" - both pretty common English.

> > For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different
> > sort to English to me.

> Hopefully a slightly more intelligible one!

Pray tell what it is about my English that you find not so
intelligible. I'd hazard that you understood quite well.

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Ben Shimmin - 11 May 2007 23:26 GMT
David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

[...]

> Are you really saying that you don't understand the difference in
> meaning of the standard English "by then" and your modern (American?)
> English "back then"?
>
> "By then", "by that time" - both pretty common English.

I'm perfectly aware of the difference, as I pointed out previously.

I also stand by what I said before: that usage of `By then' sounds clunky.
I am not alone in thinking so.  If it is acceptable in Yorkshire, then
that's fine by me.  I don't go to Yorkshire very often, so it's no skin
off my nose if you chaps want to speak in strange and clunky ways.

>> > For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different
>> > sort to English to me.
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> Pray tell what it is about my English that you find not so
> intelligible. I'd hazard that you understood quite well.

You are wearisome of late, David.  I'm sure you used to be witty, once
upon a time.

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David - 12 May 2007 10:01 GMT
> David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

> [...]

> > Are you really saying that you don't understand the difference in
> > meaning of the standard English "by then" and your modern
> > (American?) English "back then"?
> >
> > "By then", "by that time" - both pretty common English.

> I'm perfectly aware of the difference, as I pointed out previously.

I don't think you did; no-one aware of the difference could have
suggested "back then" as an alternative for "by then".

> I also stand by what I said before: that usage of `By then' sounds
> clunky. I am not alone in thinking so.  If it is acceptable in
> Yorkshire, then that's fine by me.  I don't go to Yorkshire very
> often, so it's no skin off my nose if you chaps want to speak in
> strange and clunky ways.

Why this attempt to class "by then" as a Yorkshire usage? I'll repeat:
it's a common English phrase, used throughout the UK (and quite
probably in other parts of the English speaking world).

"The club was formed in 1980 with over 100 members but by 1990 the
membership had dwindled to 10 and the club was wound up."

"The club, which had over 100 members when it was formed in 1980,
lasted only until 1990. By then, it had only 10 members."

> >> > For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different
> >> > sort to English to me.
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> > Pray tell what it is about my English that you find not so
> > intelligible. I'd hazard that you understood quite well.

> You are wearisome of late, David.  I'm sure you used to be witty,
> once upon a time.

Wearisome because I wish to discuss English in ucle? What strange ideas
you do have!

But I suppose if you're stumped by my request, we'll have to leave it
there.

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Ben Shimmin - 12 May 2007 13:39 GMT
David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
>> David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:
>> > Are you really saying that you don't understand the difference in
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> I don't think you did; no-one aware of the difference could have
> suggested "back then" as an alternative for "by then".

I very well think I did.  I said: `I accept that `back then' is imprecise,
but `by then' doesn't work in that sentence'.  I suggested an alternative
sentence which conveyed roughly, but not precisely, the same meaning, with
the bonus of sounding like something someone who actually spoke English as
their mother tongue might say.  Plus, it was a relative convenience that
only one word required changing.

I do not particularly wish to discuss this further.  If you would like to
impugn my ability to speak English by suggesting that I do not understand
the differences between simple words and phrases, you may, but I imagine
there are more profitable ways you might spend a Saturday afternoon, even
if it is raining.

>> I also stand by what I said before: that usage of `By then' sounds
>> clunky. I am not alone in thinking so.  If it is acceptable in
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
> "The club, which had over 100 members when it was formed in 1980,
> lasted only until 1990. By then, it had only 10 members."

Yes, `by then' is perfectly acceptable and idiomatic in those examples.
In the previous example (hence my saying *THAT USAGE*), it sounded wrong.
If it sounded fine to you, then we shall have to agree to disagree.

[...]

>> You are wearisome of late, David.  I'm sure you used to be witty,
>> once upon a time.
>
> Wearisome because I wish to discuss English in ucle? What strange ideas
> you do have!

Wearisome because every conversation you seem to have with anyone appears
to involve the forcible extraction of teeth.

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David - 12 May 2007 18:10 GMT
> David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

[Snip]

> >> You are wearisome of late, David.  I'm sure you used to be witty,
> >> once upon a time.
> >
> > Wearisome because I wish to discuss English in ucle? What strange
> > ideas you do have!

> Wearisome because every conversation you seem to have with anyone
> appears to involve the forcible extraction of teeth.

I too find it wearisome that folk resort to simple insult when shewn to
be wrong and to persist in their error.

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Matthew Huntbach - 12 May 2007 23:28 GMT
> David <nos...@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

> > Are you really saying that you don't understand the difference in
> > meaning of the standard English "by then" and your modern (American?)
> > English "back then"?

> > "By then", "by that time" - both pretty common English.

> I'm perfectly aware of the difference, as I pointed out previously.
>
> I also stand by what I said before: that usage of `By then' sounds clunky.
> I am not alone in thinking so.  If it is acceptable in Yorkshire, then
> that's fine by me.  I don't go to Yorkshire very often, so it's no skin
> off my nose if you chaps want to speak in strange and clunky ways.

I introduced it, and I am from Sussex, not Yorkshire. "By then"
indicating a point in time, followed by "would" and the present tense
of a verb sounds to me to be perfectly normal English, indicating a
habitual action at some point in a narrative. I am astonished to find
someone who claims it's a strange or "clunky" usage.

Matthew Huntbach
Ben Shimmin - 13 May 2007 00:52 GMT
Matthew Huntbach <mhuntbach@hotmail.com>:

[...]

> I introduced it, and I am from Sussex, not Yorkshire. "By then"
> indicating a point in time, followed by "would" and the present tense

Grammatically, the part following the `would' (a modal auxiliary) is
actually the infinitive.

> of a verb sounds to me to be perfectly normal English, indicating a
> habitual action at some point in a narrative. I am astonished to find
> someone who claims it's a strange or "clunky" usage.

Well... I'm sorry, but your original sentence didn't sound right to me.

b.

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Einde O'Callaghan - 11 May 2007 22:19 GMT
David schrieb:

<snip>

> Surely it is in the nature of (the English) language to sound clunky to
> those who are used to different idioms, or dialects?
>
> For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort
> to English to me.

May I enquire what dialect or idiom of English the last sentence is
supposed to be? ;-)

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 11 May 2007 22:50 GMT
> David schrieb:

> <snip>
> >
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> May I enquire what dialect or idiom of English the last sentence is
> supposed to be? ;-)

Yorkshire. I understand it is of Norse origin.

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Tony Mountifield - 11 May 2007 22:58 GMT
> For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort
> to English to me.

Only to you, or does he also speak it to others?

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David - 12 May 2007 10:03 GMT
> > For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different
> > sort to English to me.

> Only to you, or does he also speak it to others?

Ah, yes, typo. Should have written "speaks an entirely different sort
of English to me."

(Of course, you might prefer "than me".)

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John Hall - 12 May 2007 10:32 GMT
>> > For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different
>> > sort to English to me.
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>
>(Of course, you might prefer "than me".)

We always had it drummed into us in school that it should be "different
from". If it's any consolation, I agree with you concerning "by then".
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David - 12 May 2007 11:38 GMT
> >> > For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different
> >> > sort to English to me.
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
> >
> >(Of course, you might prefer "than me".)

> We always had it drummed into us in school that it should be
> "different from". If it's any consolation, I agree with you
> concerning "by then".

Yes, I know, but "different to" is pretty much the idiomatic English
English form these days. I use it to annoy the Yanks - who think
"different than", allow "different from" as quaint, but just can't get
their heads around "different to".

It probably also should be "from mine"; but I can't think of any way of
writing it that isn't open to different interpretation or which doesn't
sound "clunky" (as the witty Ben would say).

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Blue Sow - 12 May 2007 11:39 GMT
>>> For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different
>>> sort to English to me.
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>
> (Of course, you might prefer "than me".)

I think the query might have been to ask what a 'wife sister husband' is!

The second query is not about a typo.

If the person 'speaks an entirely different sort of English to me' it means that
they address you in a different way from the way they address other people.

'than me' is American English.

What you probably meant was 'speaks an entirely different sort of English from
me' which suggests their dialect is not the same as your dialect.

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David - 12 May 2007 16:23 GMT
> >>> For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different
> >>> sort to English to me.
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
> >
> > (Of course, you might prefer "than me".)

> I think the query might have been to ask what a 'wife sister husband'
> is!

What it says. Just an ordinary English chain of connection as used
every day by almost every English speaking person (probably in
different contexts). In this case, the chap married to the woman who is
sister to the woman to whom I am married.

Had I been speaking of a certain opening device attached to the door of
a cupboard in my kitchen, would you have queried "kitchen cupboard door
handle"? "Kitchen's cupboard's door's handle" does sound rather
"clunky".

> The second query is not about a typo.

> If the person 'speaks an entirely different sort of English to me' it
> means that they address you in a different way from the way they
> address other people.

> 'than me' is American English.

See my reply to John Hall.

> What you probably meant was 'speaks an entirely different sort of
> English from me' which suggests their dialect is not the same as
> your dialect.

Ah, oui! My wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort of
English which he learned from me.... Non?

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Blue Sow - 12 May 2007 16:54 GMT
> What it says. Just an ordinary English chain of connection as used
> every day by almost every English speaking person (probably in
> different contexts). In this case, the chap married to the woman who is
> sister to the woman to whom I am married.

Ah, your wife's sister's husband.
Or perhaps your sister-in-law's husband.

> Had I been speaking of a certain opening device attached to the door of
> a cupboard in my kitchen, would you have queried "kitchen cupboard door
> handle"? "Kitchen's cupboard's door's handle" does sound rather
> "clunky".

Actually, it sounds like gibberish, not to mention irrelevant.

>> If the person 'speaks an entirely different sort of English to me' it
>> means that they address you in a different way from the way they
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
> See my reply to John Hall.

I did, after I had already posted.

>> What you probably meant was 'speaks an entirely different sort of
>> English from me' which suggests their dialect is not the same as
>> your dialect.
>
> Ah, oui! My wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort of
> English which he learned from me.... Non?

Non.
I appreciate that English can be a difficult language to learn and I suspect
that most here merely wish to help - some obviously resent assistance.
Good luck with your learning anyway.

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David - 12 May 2007 18:02 GMT
> > What it says. Just an ordinary English chain of connection as used
> > every day by almost every English speaking person (probably in
> > different contexts). In this case, the chap married to the woman
> > who is sister to the woman to whom I am married.

> Ah, your wife's sister's husband. Or perhaps your sister-in-law's
> husband.

My sister-in-law husband could be my brother.

But yes, whereas standard English would use the "'s" genitive, some
dialects would simply list the chain of connection - as standard
English does in other contexts for other things.

> > Had I been speaking of a certain opening device attached to the
> > door of a cupboard in my kitchen, would you have queried "kitchen
> > cupboard door handle"? "Kitchen's cupboard's door's handle" does
> > sound rather "clunky".

> Actually, it sounds like gibberish, not to mention irrelevant.

But it's not irrelevant. You might easily say, e.g., "the kitchen
cupboard door handle has broken." What's the difference between the
construct of that and, e.g., "my sister wife husband has gout"?

It's an example of the diversity and use of the English language in the
culture of the UK.

> >> If the person 'speaks an entirely different sort of English to me'
> >> it means that they address you in a different way from the way
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> >
> > See my reply to John Hall.

> I did, after I had already posted.

> >> What you probably meant was 'speaks an entirely different sort of
> >> English from me' which suggests their dialect is not the same as
> >> your dialect.
> >
> > Ah, oui! My wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort
> > of English which he learned from me.... Non?

> Non. I appreciate that English can be a difficult language to learn
> and I suspect that most here merely wish to help - some obviously
> resent assistance. Good luck with your learning anyway.

Ooh! Some folk can be so unkind!

Some here wish to discuss and investigate the English language as it is
and has been used in the culture of the UK - at least that's how it was
in its active days.

But with the sort of attitude one seems to get nowadays, I don't wonder
that usenet is dying.

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Blue Sow - 12 May 2007 18:34 GMT
>> Ah, your wife's sister's husband. Or perhaps your sister-in-law's
>> husband.
>
> My sister-in-law husband could be my brother.

Your sister-in-law's husband could indeed be your brother.

>> Actually, it sounds like gibberish, not to mention irrelevant.
>
> But it's not irrelevant. You might easily say, e.g., "the kitchen
> cupboard door handle has broken." What's the difference between the
> construct of that and, e.g., "my sister wife husband has gout"?

One would be widely understood to make perfect sense, and one would not.
It is hard to tell from 'my wife sister brother' if you did not really mean 'my
wife, sister, [and] brother' (i.e. all three of them).
No one would imagine you meant 'the kitchen, cupboard, [and the] door has (sic)
broken'.

> It's an example of the diversity and use of the English language in the
> culture of the UK.

It may well be an example of an idiolect.

>> Non. I appreciate that English can be a difficult language to learn
>> and I suspect that most here merely wish to help - some obviously
>> resent assistance. Good luck with your learning anyway.
>
> Ooh! Some folk can be so unkind!

Not at all. One is never too old, or too clever, to learn more about a subject.
 Perhaps you think you do not need to learn more about English.  If it were
true, then you would be truly unique.

> Some here wish to discuss and investigate the English language as it is
> and has been used in the culture of the UK - at least that's how it was
> in its active days.

And it seems, it still is.

> But with the sort of attitude one seems to get nowadays, I don't wonder
> that usenet is dying.

Well yes.  But the rest of us are trying to keep it alive.

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David - 12 May 2007 21:23 GMT
> >> Ah, your wife's sister's husband. Or perhaps your sister-in-law's
> >> husband.
> >
> > My sister-in-law husband could be my brother.

> Your sister-in-law's husband could indeed be your brother.

That's what I wrote;,I just used a different form of English. One you
seem not to accept.

> >> Actually, it sounds like gibberish, not to mention irrelevant.
> >
> > But it's not irrelevant. You might easily say, e.g., "the kitchen
> > cupboard door handle has broken." What's the difference between the
> > construct of that and, e.g., "my sister wife husband has gout"?

> One would be widely understood to make perfect sense, and one would
> not. It is hard to tell from 'my wife sister brother' if you did not
> really mean 'my wife, sister, [and] brother' (i.e. all three of
> them). No one would imagine you meant 'the kitchen, cupboard, [and
> the] door has (sic) broken'.

Okay, a difficult example for you to take in. How about something less
complex? "Was that our Tom Henry cat the dog just ate?"

> > It's an example of the diversity and use of the English language in
> > the culture of the UK.

> It may well be an example of an idiolect.

Oh, well, if you're going to accuse me of lying.

> >> Non. I appreciate that English can be a difficult language to
> >> learn and I suspect that most here merely wish to help - some
> >> obviously resent assistance. Good luck with your learning anyway.
> >
> > Ooh! Some folk can be so unkind!

> Not at all. One is never too old, or too clever, to learn more about
> a subject. Perhaps you think you do not need to learn more about
> English.  If it were true, then you would be truly unique.

You seem to think you know it all.

> > Some here wish to discuss and investigate the English language as
> > it is and has been used in the culture of the UK - at least that's
> > how it was in its active days.

> And it seems, it still is.

I don't know. Seems to me it's nought but trolls and folk who won't
accept any viewpoint but their own.

> > But with the sort of attitude one seems to get nowadays, I don't
> > wonder that usenet is dying.

> Well yes.  But the rest of us are trying to keep it alive.

I was including you among those killing it off. Certainly accusing folk
of lying doesn't do much for its health.

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Blue Sow - 13 May 2007 10:58 GMT
> That's what I wrote;,I just used a different form of English. One you
> seem not to accept.

Rather, I suggested it was open to misinterpretation and could be written more
clearly.

> Okay, a difficult example for you to take in. How about something less
> complex? "Was that our Tom Henry cat the dog just ate?"

I am sure that means something to you.  Generally, the purpose of communication
is to convey some sort of meaning to others.  Your sentence above does not do
this in such a way that it might mean the same thing to each reader.

>>> It's an example of the diversity and use of the English language in
>>> the culture of the UK.
>
>> It may well be an example of an idiolect.
>
> Oh, well, if you're going to accuse me of lying.

You open a conditional without offering an outcome.
Happily, I did not make any such accusation, nor to I plan to do so in the near
future.  Offering a contrary opinion on an example of usage is not an accusation
of falsehood, and I am sure that you know that.
It might have been amusing to see the conclusion of your sentence in any case,
but perhaps it was just a throw-away comment.

>> Not at all. One is never too old, or too clever, to learn more about
>> a subject. Perhaps you think you do not need to learn more about
>> English.  If it were true, then you would be truly unique.
>
> You seem to think you know it all.

It is unlikely that anyone who had any information on which to base such an
opinion would arrive at that one.  It is so far from the truth as to be quite
funny.  'The more one knows, the more one realises how little one knows'. There
is always more to be learned until death or dementia makes it difficult.

> I don't know. Seems to me it's nought but trolls and folk who won't
> accept any viewpoint but their own.

Well, no one is making you post here.  This is not the 'Hotel California'; you
may leave at any time.  I have to say that you do describe yourself very well
there, and you have presented it in a way that is easy for everyone to understand.

> I was including you among those killing it off. Certainly accusing folk
> of lying doesn't do much for its health.

Were you?  Far be it from me to deny you your opinion, however perverse.
I do agree with you about accusations of lying but I have not seen an example of
that in recent times, and within my posts at least, neither have you.

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David - 13 May 2007 12:39 GMT
> > That's what I wrote;,I just used a different form of English. One
> > you seem not to accept.

> Rather, I suggested it was open to misinterpretation and could be
> written more clearly.

Hardly. I wrote as is spoken: the "s-less" genetive. How could it be
written more clearly? And what language is not open to
misinterpretation? Certainly standard English is misinterpreted by
almost all folk almost all the time. Witness Ben Shimmin who apparently
could not tell the difference in meaning between "by then" and "back
then" (or he was simply trolling, and requirement that I be witty in my
replies to him seems to bear out that supposition).

> > Okay, a difficult example for you to take in. How about something
> > less complex? "Was that our Tom Henry cat the dog just ate?"

> I am sure that means something to you.  Generally, the purpose of
> communication is to convey some sort of meaning to others.  Your
> sentence above does not do this in such a way that it might mean the
> same thing to each reader.

It is perfectly comprehensible to folk who use the unmodified genitive.
As the genitive is not modified, and as it is precisely the form of
language folk use, pray tell me how it could be differently written?

> >>> It's an example of the diversity and use of the English language
> >>> in the culture of the UK.
> >
> >> It may well be an example of an idiolect.
> >
> > Oh, well, if you're going to accuse me of lying.

> You open a conditional without offering an outcome.

Not enough time to write it all - and a complete waste of bandwidth
doing so.

> Happily, I did
> not make any such accusation, nor to I plan to do so in the near
> future.  Offering a contrary opinion on an example of usage is not an
> accusation of falsehood, and I am sure that you know that. It might
> have been amusing to see the conclusion of your sentence in any case,
> but perhaps it was just a throw-away comment.

I said it was dialect; by saying that it may well be an example of
idiolect, and not accepting what I said in good faith, you effectively
called me a liar.

> >> Not at all. One is never too old, or too clever, to learn more
> >> about a subject. Perhaps you think you do not need to learn more
> >> about English.  If it were true, then you would be truly unique.
> >
> > You seem to think you know it all.

> It is unlikely that anyone who had any information on which to base
> such an opinion would arrive at that one.  It is so far from the
> truth as to be quite funny.  'The more one knows, the more one
> realises how little one knows'. There is always more to be learned
> until death or dementia makes it difficult.

and you know so much that you know you know so little yet still have a
mind completely closed to the possibility that there exists English
genitives not ending in "'s".

> > I don't know. Seems to me it's nought but trolls and folk who won't
> > accept any viewpoint but their own.

> Well, no one is making you post here.  This is not the 'Hotel
> California'; you may leave at any time.  I have to say that you do
> describe yourself very well there, and you have presented it in a
> way that is easy for everyone to understand.

Really? It's you who hasn't accepted the concept of the "s-less"
genitive in Yorkshire dialect; you who won't accept the written version
of the spoken sentence but demands it be rewritten in a way that you
understand; you who try to put down folk who wish to discuss the
culture of the English language in the UK rather than treat the
newsgroup merely as a less than helpful resource for ESL folk.

> > I was including you among those killing it off. Certainly accusing
> > folk of lying doesn't do much for its health.

> Were you?  Far be it from me to deny you your opinion, however
> perverse. I do agree with you about accusations of lying but I have
> not seen an example of that in recent times, and within my posts at
> least, neither have you.

Any perverse opinion in this current discussion must necessarily be
yours as you are the one who doesn't seem to accept facts when
presented with them. As to any lies within your posts, well there may
be a very fine example quoted in a paragraph not too far above this.

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Ben Shimmin - 13 May 2007 13:20 GMT
David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

[...]

> Hardly. I wrote as is spoken: the "s-less" genetive. How could it be
> written more clearly? And what language is not open to
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> then" (or he was simply trolling, and requirement that I be witty in my
> replies to him seems to bear out that supposition).

I almost choked on my coffee at the accusation of trolling!  Rather rich
coming from you, surely?

Incidentally, I imagine your research into the ``s-less' genetive' may be
augmented somewhat when you learn how to spell `genitive'.

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David - 13 May 2007 17:47 GMT
> David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

> [...]

> > Hardly. I wrote as is spoken: the "s-less" genetive. How could it
> > be written more clearly? And what language is not open to
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> > that I be witty in my replies to him seems to bear out that
> > supposition).

> I almost choked on my coffee at the accusation of trolling!  Rather
> rich coming from you, surely?

Nope. Do it entirely for the fact rather than any monetary reward.

So, if you weren't trolling, you admit your ear wasn't attuned to the
difference in meaning between "by then" and "back then"? Those are the
only two explanations I can think of for suggesting the change in the
first place, and the rather strange attitude of yours that came across
when challenged on it.

> Incidentally, I imagine your research into the ``s-less' genetive'
> may be augmented somewhat when you learn how to spell `genitive'.

Gee, thanks for that, Ben. Will you be editing all my posts and
correcting the odd typo, along with the split infinitives and
grammatical soelcisms I make? I really hope you do as it will save me
an awful lot of bother having check over my own typing.

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Ben Shimmin - 13 May 2007 21:42 GMT
David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

[...]

>> I almost choked on my coffee at the accusation of trolling!  Rather
>> rich coming from you, surely?
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> first place, and the rather strange attitude of yours that came across
> when challenged on it.

I think perhaps you need to read the thread once again.  Clearly my
contributions were too subtle for you to understand fully.  Perhaps
if you were to consume a little less gin before posting...

>> Incidentally, I imagine your research into the ``s-less' genetive'
>> may be augmented somewhat when you learn how to spell `genitive'.
>
> Gee, thanks for that, Ben. Will you be editing all my posts and
> correcting the odd typo,

(the odd recurrent typo)

>                          along with the split infinitives and
> grammatical soelcisms I make? I really hope you do as it will save me
> an awful lot of bother having check over my own typing.

Oh, I am sorry, David -- I thought my correction would aid your future
Google searches on this topic.  Obviously it just served to upset you,
for which I apologise.

Anyway...  I'm utterly bored with this.  If you wish to discuss this
nonsense any further, you have my email address.  FU set accordingly.

b.

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David - 13 May 2007 22:22 GMT
> David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

> [...]

> >> I almost choked on my coffee at the accusation of trolling!
> >> Rather rich coming from you, surely?
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> > change in the first place, and the rather strange attitude of yours
> > that came across when challenged on it.

> I think perhaps you need to read the thread once again.  Clearly my
> contributions were too subtle for you to understand fully.

Well, that's one way of looking at it. Entirely the wrong way, of
course, but don't let facts get in the way of trolling accusations.

> Perhaps
> if you were to consume a little less gin before posting...

Yes, another troll device.

> >> Incidentally, I imagine your research into the ``s-less' genetive'
> >> may be augmented somewhat when you learn how to spell `genitive'.
> >
> > Gee, thanks for that, Ben. Will you be editing all my posts and
> > correcting the odd typo,

> (the odd recurrent typo)

Typos happen. Get over it. In my post to which you replied claiming to
note my lack of competence at spelling, I used the word 'genitive' five
times, only one of which had the typo 'genetive'.

Now, I accept that it would be better did I not have typos and other
such errors in my posts but I do - as do quite a few other folk,
probably because theses posts are usually dashed off - and ordinarily
it is considered much less than good manners to draw so much attention
to the odd typo. Usually, it is a practice resorted to by trolls who,
losing arguments or realising their own contribution has been shewn up
as less than 9 carat, seek to ridicule their opponents in any which way
they can.

> >                          along with the split infinitives and
> > grammatical soelcisms I make? I really hope you do as it will save
> > me an awful lot of bother having check over my own typing.

> Oh, I am sorry, David -- I thought my correction would aid your
> future Google searches on this topic.  Obviously it just served to
> upset you, for which I apologise.

If I thought for one moment you really meant it, I'd accept it.

> Anyway...  I'm utterly bored with this.  If you wish to discuss this
> nonsense any further, you have my email address.  FU set accordingly.

You said something similar before but you really couldn't bring
yourself to stay away, could you?

You trolled publicly; I'll reply publicly.

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Ben Shimmin - 13 May 2007 22:43 GMT
David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

[tedious attributions trimmed]

>> >> Incidentally, I imagine your research into the ``s-less' genetive'
>> >> may be augmented somewhat when you learn how to spell `genitive'.
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> note my lack of competence at spelling, I used the word 'genitive' five
> times, only one of which had the typo 'genetive'.

Come on David, try and be at least a tiny bit honest.  Before I'd corrected
you, you made the same `typo' three times in

 <4ee205d91bnospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>

and once in

 <4ee250c799nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>

(not to mention once in the post to which I was following up).  Come on,
just admit it -- you can't spell the word `genitive'. :)

[...]

> You trolled publicly; I'll reply publicly.

Sigh.

FU to poster again, FWIW.

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David - 13 May 2007 22:59 GMT
> David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

> [tedious attributions trimmed]

> >> >> Incidentally, I imagine your research into the ``s-less'
> >> >> genetive' may be augmented somewhat when you learn how to spell
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> > to note my lack of competence at spelling, I used the word
> > 'genitive' five times, only one of which had the typo 'genetive'.

> Come on David, try and be at least a tiny bit honest.  Before I'd
> corrected you, you made the same `typo' three times in

>   <4ee205d91bnospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>

> and once in

>   <4ee250c799nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>

> (not to mention once in the post to which I was following up).  Come
> on, just admit it -- you can't spell the word `genitive'. :)

Did I really? Well, in that case, Einde can't spell the word "the" (to
Einde, sorry for using you as an example but it is your most endearing
typo).

I should think there's a very good technical reason why I might keep
typing "genetive" instead of "genitive" when writing these posts in the
hasty way that I do, and that is because I probably type the sequence
"gene" far more than the sequence "geni".

I also think that fact that in a post where I use the word five times,
I spell it correctly four times and make only one typo, would be good
reason to believe that it was a typo and not an inability to spell.

Of course, only a troll would (a) make a count of the number of times I
have made the typo, and (b) keep on making post after post about it. Or
someone really fixated.

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Ben Shimmin - 13 May 2007 23:14 GMT
David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

[plenty of verbiage explaining how he *can* spell `genitive' correctly,
but sometimes he doesn't, just to keep the rest of us on our toes.  Or
something.  I lost interest after the first paragraph of excuses, to be
honest.]

> Of course, only a troll would (a) make a count of the number of times I
> have made the typo, and (b) keep on making post after post about it. Or
> someone really fixated.

You must be right.  I hadn't realised until now, but I think I'm actually
very much in love with you.

FU to poster again.  I hope it stays there, because I want David all to
myself!

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David - 13 May 2007 23:21 GMT
> David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

> [plenty of verbiage explaining how he *can* spell `genitive'
>  correctly, but sometimes he doesn't, just to keep the rest of us on
>  our toes.  Or something.  I lost interest after the first paragraph
>  of excuses, to be honest.]

> > Of course, only a troll would (a) make a count of the number of
> > times I have made the typo, and (b) keep on making post after post
> > about it. Or someone really fixated.

> You must be right.  I hadn't realised until now, but I think I'm
> actually very much in love with you.

> FU to poster again.  I hope it stays there, because I want David all
> to myself!

Squirm every which way you can, it still doesn't alter the fact that,
even though you might make fewer typos than I do, you didn't suss the
difference in meaning between the elegant "by then" and your clunky
"back then".

Will you ever live it down?

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Ben Shimmin - 14 May 2007 00:11 GMT
David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

[...]

>> FU to poster again.  I hope it stays there, because I want David all
>> to myself!
>
> Squirm every which way you can, it still doesn't alter the fact that,
> even though you might make fewer typos

`spelling errors', you mean.

>                                        than I do, you didn't suss the
> difference in meaning between the elegant "by then" and your clunky
> "back then".
>
> Will you ever live it down?

Presumably I will, since you're in the minority in thinking that the
original phrasing involving `by then' did not sound clunky.

I'll set FU to poster for the last time, but I'm afraid I'm not going
to take any further part in this increasingly tedious discussion.

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David - 14 May 2007 09:11 GMT
> David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

> [...]

> >> FU to poster again.  I hope it stays there, because I want David
> >> all to myself!
> >
> > Squirm every which way you can, it still doesn't alter the fact
> > that, even though you might make fewer typos

> `spelling errors', you mean.

I know what I mean; you cannot possibly know.

> >                                        than I do, you didn't suss
> > the difference in meaning between the elegant "by then" and your
> > clunky "back then".
> >
> > Will you ever live it down?

> Presumably I will, since you're in the minority in thinking that the
> original phrasing involving `by then' did not sound clunky.

Going by all the emails of support you've received, I suppose.

> I'll set FU to poster for the last time, but I'm afraid I'm not going
> to take any further part in this increasingly tedious discussion.

Thank goodness for that!

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Blue Sow - 13 May 2007 16:23 GMT
Nothing worthy of quotation, so <snip>

You have now resorted to raving, and meanwhile a range of other posts suggests
that the weight of opinion is against you.

You might want to know that 'Possessive adjectives and pronouns [in Yorkshire
dialect] do not differ greatly to [sic] those of standard English'
http://www.yorksj.ac.uk/dialect/

You may write whatever drivel you wish in response to this.  I made the effort
to be helpful but now that your posts are not even thinly disguised as genuine,
I can no longer spare the time to play with you.

Or: To drivel you whatever response write wish in may you this (in your dialect).

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David - 13 May 2007 20:01 GMT
> Nothing worthy of quotation, so <snip>

> You have now resorted to raving, and meanwhile a range of other posts
> suggests that the weight of opinion is against you.

> You might want to know that 'Possessive adjectives and pronouns [in
> Yorkshire dialect] do not differ greatly to [sic] those of standard
> English' http://www.yorksj.ac.uk/dialect/

> You may write whatever drivel you wish in response to this.  I made
> the effort to be helpful but now that your posts are not even thinly
> disguised as genuine, I can no longer spare the time to play with
> you.

> Or: To drivel you whatever response write wish in may you this (in
> your dialect).

Phew!

You really are a troll, aren't you! (No, that wasn't a question!)

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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 15:33 GMT
David schrieb:
<snip>

> Okay, a difficult example for you to take in. How about something less
> complex? "Was that our Tom Henry cat the dog just ate?"

I also have difficulty interpreting this. I can understand that the dog
has just eaten a cat, but who teh cat belongs to is a riddle to me. did
the cat belong to Henry, Toms's son, or was it a tom-cat called Henry or
even a cat called Tom Henry - or perhaps, taking it to extremes, "our
Tom" was eaten by a dog called "Henry cat".

Again can you interpret for those of us not privileged enough to have
experienced the Yorkshire dialect.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 13 May 2007 18:18 GMT
> David schrieb: <snip>
> >
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> called Henry or even a cat called Tom Henry - or perhaps, taking it
> to extremes, "our Tom" was eaten by a dog called "Henry cat".

> Again can you interpret for those of us not privileged enough to have
> experienced the Yorkshire dialect.

I really am sorry for you, not being so privileged!

Anyhow, I find your first question totally incomprehensible. Who on
Earth is "Toms"? And what does the word "teh" mean? (I see you using it
quite often.)

But, I think you're just playing silly beggars because it's (now) a
Yorkshire thing and, as anyone knows, one is duty bound to ridicule
anything Yorkshire in order to demonstrate our knowledge and
intelligence.

However I'm sure that if you sift it enough, you'll eventually find the
correct meaning amongst all the totally unlikely and downright
impossible ones you prefer to suggest you think it might mean.

Oh well, at least we're in good company with Mr Chaucer.

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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 18:38 GMT
David schrieb:

>>David schrieb: <snip>
>>
[quoted text clipped - 15 lines]
> Earth is "Toms"? And what does the word "teh" mean? (I see you using it
> quite often.)

I actually used "Tom's" i.e. the Saxon genitive of Tom. I want to know
if "Tom Henry" in your sentence means Henry, who is in some way related
to Tom (perhaps his son). And "teh" is an obvious typo as can be
discerned from the context - the fingers of the left hand being
sometimes faster than those of the right when touchtyping.

> But, I think you're just playing silly beggars because it's (now) a
> Yorkshire thing and, as anyone knows, one is duty bound to ridicule
> anything Yorkshire in order to demonstrate our knowledge and
> intelligence.

I don't know why you think that. I asked you a genuine question and
don't understand your hostility. I've always found the Yorkshire dialect
fascinating when I've encountered it - indeed i find all dialects of
English fascinating as they give a fascinating insight into the
development of teh language and the possibilities that reside within it.

> However I'm sure that if you sift it enough, you'll eventually find the
> correct meaning amongst all the totally unlikely and downright
> impossible ones you prefer to suggest you think it might mean.

I'd guess that it was the cat that was eaten and that it belonged to
Henry, who may have been Tom's son, and that Tom is probably the
speaker's brother. However that interpretation isn't based on any
grammatical information in th sentence, it's merely an educted guess,
whereas "my wife sister husband" does seem logical once you know about
this dialect peculiarity (the latter word is not meant in any derogtory
sense).

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 13 May 2007 20:14 GMT
> David schrieb:
> >
[quoted text clipped - 23 lines]
> can be discerned from the context - the fingers of the left hand
> being sometimes faster than those of the right when touchtyping.

Sorry Einde, you wrote "did the cat belong to Henry, Toms's son," and I
picked out your other typo because I'm getting blasted for my typos and
it seems as though you're going out of your way to suggest every
impossible or implausible meaning whilst not coming up with one single
meaning - the intended, actual one. The fact that you have missed
saying the meaning but given every other possibly and ridiculous
meaning you can think of does give one cause to think some pisstaking
is going on somewhere.

> > But, I think you're just playing silly beggars because it's (now) a
> > Yorkshire thing and, as anyone knows, one is duty bound to ridicule
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> into the development of teh language and the possibilities that
> reside within it.

Which doesn't seem to mesh too well with:

====================================================

In article <5anqe4F2nf585U1@mid.individual.net>,

> Thank you - I hadn't encountered this form before. However, it's now
> clear that it isn't standard English, which is my interest as a
> teacher of English as a second language.

====================================================

Either it is your interest or it is not.

> > However I'm sure that if you sift it enough, you'll eventually find
> > the correct meaning amongst all the totally unlikely and downright
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> about this dialect peculiarity (the latter word is not meant in any
> derogtory sense).

I've explained in another post. Even in "standard" English, one would
find "Tom's Harry's cat" "clunky" (to borrow a term from that
arch-troll BS) and would expect something like "Tom's son Harry's cat"
(commas seem impossible in that construct) so, if "standard" English
wouldn't go for the two names like that, why should you expect it in
this dialect form?

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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 22:11 GMT
David schrieb:

>>David schrieb:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 32 lines]
> meaning you can think of does give one cause to think some pisstaking
> is going on somewhere.

the meaning may be obvious to you since you're familiar witht he
dialect, but until you know that it's a double barrelled name it is
difficult to work out the sense.

>>>But, I think you're just playing silly beggars because it's (now) a
>>>Yorkshire thing and, as anyone knows, one is duty bound to ridicule
[quoted text clipped - 21 lines]
>
> Either it is your interest or it is not.

As a teacher of English as a second language I have a professional
interest in standard English - as an individual with widespread
interests I'm interested among many other things in English in all its
varieties and dialects.

>>>However I'm sure that if you sift it enough, you'll eventually find
>>>the correct meaning amongst all the totally unlikely and downright
[quoted text clipped - 14 lines]
> wouldn't go for the two names like that, why should you expect it in
> this dialect form?

But why not? I was unfamiliar with the structure and trying to work out
what it could mean. Only when I became aware that Tom Henry was actually
the name of one individual did the structure make sense.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 13 May 2007 23:11 GMT
> David schrieb:
> >
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
> dialect, but until you know that it's a double barrelled name it is
> difficult to work out the sense.

Firstly, I wouldn't call it a double barrelled name, I'd reserve that
term for surnames. Secondly, although it might be difficult to work out
the sense (and I really don't see why it should be, given that it is
merely a dialect of English and not a foreign language), the fact of
your coming out with every possible meaning but the right one is very,
very fishy.

> > Either it is your interest or it is not.
> >
> As a teacher of English as a second language I have a professional
> interest in standard English - as an individual with widespread
> interests I'm interested among many other things in English in all
> its varieties and dialects.

Ah, well, it's just that after I'd gone to the (admittedly small)
effort of a web search for your benefit, you apparently dismissed it as
of no interest whatsoever to you, but later expressed great interest
(but complete failure to understand) as though trying to draw me in...

> > I've explained in another post. Even in "standard" English, one
> > would find "Tom's Harry's cat" "clunky" (to borrow a term from that
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> out what it could mean. Only when I became aware that Tom Henry was
> actually the name of one individual did the structure make sense.

I said before that it was odd that the one sense you didn't come up
with was the correct one but it's even odder that the correct sense you
failed to spot amongst all the silly ones was the one nearest to
standard English.

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Einde O'Callaghan - 14 May 2007 00:15 GMT
David schrieb:

>>David schrieb:
>>
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
> Firstly, I wouldn't call it a double barrelled name, I'd reserve that
> term for surnames.

I would tend to agree with you there but I couldn't think of another
term for the double forename.

> Secondly, although it might be difficult to work out
> the sense (and I really don't see why it should be, given that it is
> merely a dialect of English and not a foreign language), the fact of
> your coming out with every possible meaning but the right one is very,
> very fishy.

It woujld have been clearer if you'd used a single forename, but since
with this Yorkshire non-Saxon genitive there is no way of telling which
of a string of nouns is actually a genitive there was no indication taht
it was a case of the double name of one individual. you are assuming
knowledge of the cultural background that was missing.

>>>Either it is your interest or it is not.
>>
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> of no interest whatsoever to you, but later expressed great interest
> (but complete failure to understand) as though trying to draw me in...

In my first post I explicitly said that standard english was my interest
in my professional capacity AS AN ENGLISH TEACHER (those were the actual
words I used). I said absolutely nothing of my personal interest or lack
of interest in questions of dialect.

>>>I've explained in another post. Even in "standard" English, one
>>>would find "Tom's Harry's cat" "clunky" (to borrow a term from that
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
> failed to spot amongst all the silly ones was the one nearest to
> standard English.

As I've already said your use of the double name confused me. When you
are illustrating a grammatical point it's best to use an example that
doesn't raise irrelevant questions - this is something I've learned
through bitter experience in the classroom.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 14 May 2007 09:32 GMT
> David schrieb:

[Snip all else]

["Was that our Tom Henry cat the dog just ate?"]

> > Secondly, although it might be difficult to work out the sense (and
> > I really don't see why it should be, given that it is merely a
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> individual. you are assuming knowledge of the cultural background
> that was missing.

Not really; I am assuming some reasonable knowledge of English. As I've
said, it is unlikely that an English speaker would have problems with,
e.g., "kitchen cupboard door handle". That four-word chain might
grammatically be not genitive but it does have precisely the same sense
of linkage and dependency as, e.g., "wife's sister's husband's gout".
Thee is no question in "kitchen cupboard door handle" that the handle
is on the kitchen door, even though there is no indication that such is
not the case - except for the fact of word order.

I also don't think it unusual for folk to have two forenames and be
referred to as such. However, it is possible that "Tom Henry" gives a
single forename and surname. That really doesn't matter in the example,
does it? Where it really would matter would be in the context in which
it was being used, and in that case, those hearing it would know.

I also expect English speakers of reasonable intelligence will go for
the simplest interpretation first, perhpas seeking other
interpretations should the first not make sense. You claim to have
completely missed the indication of word order (the same order as
standard English genitives or genitive chains, and the same order as
the natural order in the more complex compound nouns). You had the
information that it was genitive, just that it was a non-modified (i.e.
"s-less") genitive. It really doesn't take much thought to find a
reasonable meaning. Do you really have so much trouble working out the
different meanings in compound nouns?

On non-modified forms: English has quite a few examples where verb
forms do not differ, or where plurals do not differ. Who do you ask,
when you come across the word "sheep", wether[1] singular or plural is
meant?

[1] One for Ben Shimmin, there.

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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 15:26 GMT
David schrieb:

<snip>

> But it's not irrelevant. You might easily say, e.g., "the kitchen
> cupboard door handle has broken." What's the difference between the
> construct of that and, e.g., "my sister wife husband has gout"?

I find the last sentence incomprehensible, if only because AFAIK it is
still impossible for your sister to have a wife, even if same-sex
partnerships are now legally recognised. Perhaps you could interpret for
those of us who don't come Yorkshire.

Here in Saxony, where I live, there is a dialect structure that
translates as "my brother his car" or "my mother her hat" etc. However
it can only replace the genitive when referring to people. Also you
can't string them together.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 13 May 2007 18:06 GMT
> David schrieb:

> <snip>
> >
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> partnerships are now legally recognised. Perhaps you could interpret
> for those of us who don't come Yorkshire.

Well, even the trolling "blue sow" managed to pick out that I'd made a
transposition error from the origin example "wife sister husband".

I've given you the URL of an academic web site dealing with the
"s-less" genitive (or even genetive, just to give Shimmin another
frisson of typographical pleasure), and even noted in my post for those
who didn't wish to visit the site that it came from Old English
genitives with certain endings: in Middle English, these generally fell
to the common ""es"/"'s" ending throughout most of the UK but in some
parts of Yorkshire, the generalisation was to the "s-less" (or
unaltered) genitive.

Since I cannot but write what is spoken, I cannot write "wife's sister"
as a representation of the Yorkshire s-less genitive "wife sister", nor
similarly with the continuation of the chain.

I would have thought that being told it concerned the "s-less"
genitive, anyone of moderate intelligence and a reasonable
understanding of English would not find "my wife sister husband has
gout" incapable of being understood (and might even, given previous
posts in the thread, worked out the intended meaning of the erroneous
"my sister wife husband has gout").

> Here in Saxony, where I live, there is a dialect structure that
> translates as "my brother his car" or "my mother her hat" etc.
> However it can only replace the genitive when referring to people.
> Also you can't string them together.

And if I were "blue sow" I might suggest "it may well be an example of
an idiolect." You wouldn't like it if I did or, in this case, if I said
that I found that ("my mother her hat")[1] incomprehensible and asked
you to interpret for those of us not au fait with the dialect in
question.

[1] Why is she wearing my mother on her head?

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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 18:25 GMT
David schrieb:

>>David schrieb:
>
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
> Well, even the trolling "blue sow" managed to pick out that I'd made a
> transposition error from the origin example "wife sister husband".

Sorry, but I have given up reading the exchanges between you two because
they tend to be bad-tempered and I don't know the background to your
mutual hostility. spo I could only judge on the basis of what you had
written.

In addition, since the original query was posed by a non-native speaker
I must admit that I found the use of dialect a bit problematic since
most of those that learn English as a second language learn the standard
form, which admittedly none of us who are native speakers actually speak
(we all have regional and dialect influences on grammar, vocabulary and
pronunciation).

> I've given you the URL of an academic web site dealing with the
> "s-less" genitive (or even genetive, just to give Shimmin another
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> parts of Yorkshire, the generalisation was to the "s-less" (or
> unaltered) genitive.

I've lookmed at the page and found it very interesting and instructive.

> Since I cannot but write what is spoken, I cannot write "wife's sister"
> as a representation of the Yorkshire s-less genitive "wife sister", nor
> similarly with the continuation of the chain.

I wouldn't expect you to represent Yorkshire dialect any way other than
"as it is spoke".

> I would have thought that being told it concerned the "s-less"
> genitive, anyone of moderate intelligence and a reasonable
> understanding of English would not find "my wife sister husband has
> gout" incapable of being understood (and might even, given previous
> posts in the thread, worked out the intended meaning of the erroneous
> "my sister wife husband has gout").

Sorry, I hadn't read all teh posts involved - I just stumbled over teh
example and found it puzzling - and I must say I also found your
sentence about the cat and the dog puzzling as I can't work out the
exact relationship between the first string of nouns.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 13 May 2007 18:58 GMT
> David schrieb:

[Big Snip]

> > I would have thought that being told it concerned the "s-less"
> > genitive, anyone of moderate intelligence and a reasonable
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> sentence about the cat and the dog puzzling as I can't work out the
> exact relationship between the first string of nouns.

Had I been interested in some aspect being discussed but puzzled by it,
I would probably have gone up-thread to try and see the start and
development of the discussion.

The "s-less" genitive string or chain is not unlike the compound noun
which can get just as long and complex, perhaps longer. My example,
"kitchen cupboard door handle" links four things to identify: the
handle of the door of the cupboard in (of) the kitchen. You wouldn't
expect, e.g., "kitchen garage door handle" which doesn't make sense to
anyone (except perhaps someone who lives in a house with several
garages, one of which is habitually referred to as the "kitchen
garage").

"My wife sister husband has gout" seems pretty straightforward to me as
a chain of linked relationships: the husband of the sister of my wife.
At least it's as comprehensible as "kitchen cupboard door handle" which
I don't think you would claim to have problems with.

"Was that our Tom Henry cat the dog just ate?" would be as
comprehensible as "kitchen garage door handle" if you can't get beyond
the idea that Tom and Henry are the names of different men. And, of
course, they can't be: there's no relationship given. "Tom lad, Henry"
would be Tom's son; "Tom father, Henry", "Tom brother, Henry", "Tom
mate, Henry" are similarly quite explicit. That really leaves the only
possibility as "Tom Henry" being the two names of a single individual
(and folk being referred to by both forenames was very common until
recent times, and not unknown today). Once you realise this simple
aspect of English (and it and similar pitfalls occur in standard
English), "Tom Henry cat" is no more difficult than "car window"
("car's window" is always possible but not usual; "car windscreen",
"car's windscreen", or just "windscreen", are all quite common and
no-one gets up a song and dance about not understand one form because
they're used to the other).

In the end, I suppose it's about familiarity with the language - as it
is with many other aspects of English which when seen without that
familiarity of use can seem even more nonsensical.

Hope that gives some clarification.

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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 19:34 GMT
David schrieb:

>>David schrieb:
>
[quoted text clipped - 29 lines]
> At least it's as comprehensible as "kitchen cupboard door handle" which
> I don't think you would claim to have problems with.

With that version I have no problem. My problem was witht he "sister
wife" example - from the context it appeared to me that this was a new
example, not a repeat of something from earlier.

> "Was that our Tom Henry cat the dog just ate?" would be as
> comprehensible as "kitchen garage door handle" if you can't get beyond
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
> no-one gets up a song and dance about not understand one form because
> they're used to the other).

Unless you know that "Tom Henry" must refer to one person the entence is
confusing. As a matter of fact in many rural areas of Ireland this type
of nomenclature was common ußp to about the Second World War in order to
distinguish one man called Tom from anotehr with the same surname. tom
Henry was the Tom who was Henry's son and Tom Billy was the Tom who was
Billy's son.

Is that the origin of names like Tom Henry in Yorkshire, too?

> In the end, I suppose it's about familiarity with the language - as it
> is with many other aspects of English which when seen without that
> familiarity of use can seem even more nonsensical.
>
> Hope that gives some clarification.

Thank you.

Regrds, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 13 May 2007 20:24 GMT
> David schrieb:
> >
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> same surname. tom Henry was the Tom who was Henry's son and Tom
> Billy was the Tom who was Billy's son.

Well, all I can say is that it's a damned good job you didn't propose
an example sentence using that in some other argument or you'd have had
folk going on about how totally incomprehensible it was, not to mention
taking the piss out of the Irish

> Is that the origin of names like Tom Henry in Yorkshire, too?

What's the origin of having several forenames? In some families, only
two names are ever used for the eldest sons in line, swapping about at
each generation. Would that be indicative of such practice? I think not
so. The origin of many surnames derives from a similar practice, though.

But no, generally it's just the giving of two (or more) forenames (as
mine are John David) and the use of full forenames probably because in
large families (a dozen or more, as there were in my father's family),
some children would have the same first name.

> > In the end, I suppose it's about familiarity with the language - as
> > it is with many other aspects of English which when seen without
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> >
> Thank you.

I'm willing to make the effort when the interest is genuine. It's these
bloody fools who just want to argue for the sake of it who piss me off.

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John Briggs - 13 May 2007 21:27 GMT
> What's the origin of having several forenames?

It starts with royalty and trickles down the social order.  James I was
Charles James (as was his second son) and his eldest son was Henry
Frederick.

Which means that the catechism, "What is your name? Answer: N or M" (1549)
cannot refer to multiple forenames...
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David - 13 May 2007 22:43 GMT
> > What's the origin of having several forenames?

> It starts with royalty and trickles down the social order.  James I
> was Charles James (as was his second son) and his eldest son was
> Henry Frederick.

(Funny, I thought the Romans had several names.)

But, anyway, surely proof of that assertion would be quite difficult?

> Which means that the catechism, "What is your name? Answer: N or M"
> (1549) cannot refer to multiple forenames...

So, what would it refer to? I really can't see that being written in
without reason - or were they really so psychic?

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John Briggs - 14 May 2007 10:44 GMT
>>> What's the origin of having several forenames?
>
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
> (Funny, I thought the Romans had several names.)

Did you think they had several forenames?

> But, anyway, surely proof of that assertion would be quite difficult?

Proof of which assertion?  Why?  Here's another assertion: the fashion
spread from France (royalty and aristocracy.)

>> Which means that the catechism, "What is your name? Answer: N or M"
>> (1549) cannot refer to multiple forenames...
>
> So, what would it refer to? I really can't see that being written in
> without reason - or were they really so psychic?

It's only an assumption that "N or M" is a corruption of "N or NN" [name or
names].  Even if it is, it would have to apply to multiple *people*.
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David - 14 May 2007 17:19 GMT
> >>> What's the origin of having several forenames?
> >
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> >
> > (Funny, I thought the Romans had several names.)

> Did you think they had several forenames?

Probably not; I seem to recall the names acted as several levels of
family and clan identification.

> > But, anyway, surely proof of that assertion would be quite
> > difficult?

> Proof of which assertion?  Why?  Here's another assertion: the
> fashion spread from France (royalty and aristocracy.)

The assertion that no-one before James I had more than one forename.

I don't doubt that it's easy to demonstrate a rise in popularity of
multiple forenames, and to track the spread of that popularity but it
is simply not possible to prove that no-one had two or more forenames
before the naming of Charles James.

> >> Which means that the catechism, "What is your name? Answer: N or
> >> M" (1549) cannot refer to multiple forenames...
> >
> > So, what would it refer to? I really can't see that being written
> > in without reason - or were they really so psychic?

> It's only an assumption that "N or M" is a corruption of "N or NN"
> [name or names].  Even if it is, it would have to apply to multiple
> *people*.

'Could' apply to multiple people. I've forgotten the catechism and
can't be bothered to look it up but I suppose you wouldn't have
mentioned it unless it could be understood to refer to the several
names of one person.

I don't think you know the intent of the writers, nor can you prove
that it was unknown 'back then' for some folk to have several forenames.

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John Briggs - 14 May 2007 17:50 GMT
>>>>> What's the origin of having several forenames?
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 21 lines]
> is simply not possible to prove that no-one had two or more forenames
> before the naming of Charles James.

Why is it not possible to prove?

But don't take my word for it; here's William Camden writing in 1614:

"But two christian names are rare in England, and I only remember now his
Majesty, who was named Charles James, as the prince his sonne Henry Frederic
: and among private men, Thomas Maria Wingfield, and Sir Thomas Posthumus
Hobby."

>>>> Which means that the catechism, "What is your name? Answer: N or
>>>> M" (1549) cannot refer to multiple forenames...
[quoted text clipped - 14 lines]
> that it was unknown 'back then' for some folk to have several
> forenames.

Nobody knows the intent of the writers - that's the whole point. But we can
eliminate certain possibilities.

Why do you imagine that records don't exist, and that I am ignorant of the
subject?
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David - 14 May 2007 18:00 GMT
> > The assertion that no-one before James I had more than one forename.
> >
> > I don't doubt that it's easy to demonstrate a rise in popularity of
> > multiple forenames, and to track the spread of that popularity but
> > it is simply not possible to prove that no-one had two or more
> > forenames before the naming of Charles James.

> Why is it not possible to prove?

Because to do so you would have to know the complete name of every
person who ever lived.

> But don't take my word for it; here's William Camden writing in 1614:

> "But two christian names are rare in England, and I only remember now
> his Majesty, who was named Charles James, as the prince his sonne
> Henry Frederic : and among private men, Thomas Maria Wingfield, and
> Sir Thomas : Posthumus Hobby."

And even he says "rare", not "completely unknown". Again, I doubt if he
knew the full names of everyone who had ever lived.

> > 'Could' apply to multiple people. I've forgotten the catechism and
> > can't be bothered to look it up but I suppose you wouldn't have
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> > that it was unknown 'back then' for some folk to have several
> > forenames.

> Nobody knows the intent of the writers - that's the whole point. But
> we can eliminate certain possibilities.

Only if you have proof; and I say again, you can prove that two
forenames did happen if you find one single example, but to prove they
didn't, you would have to prove that anyone who ever lived did not have
two forenames.

> Why do you imagine that records don't exist, and that I am ignorant
> of the subject?

No, I don't imagine that for a moment. Do you claim that no records
were lost or destroyed, or that all namings were recorded?

I'm not disputing any claim that it was rare, just that you can prove
it did not happen.

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John Briggs - 14 May 2007 18:06 GMT
>>> The assertion that no-one before James I had more than one forename.
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 43 lines]
> I'm not disputing any claim that it was rare, just that you can prove
> it did not happen.

Why do we need to consider namings that are not recorded?
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David - 14 May 2007 20:45 GMT
> Why do we need to consider namings that are not recorded?

Because those folk who were named had a name - or names - whether the
fact was recorded or not.

If you remember how this started, it was with your assertion that the
giving of several forenames began with James I, to which I stated the
simple fact of logic that you cannot prove such an assertion without
knowing the names of everyone who ever lived (named prior to James I,
naturally), whether recorded or not, and that itself is probably quite
impossible.

It's not something that bothers me a lot so if you don't wish to pursue
the discussion, that's fine by me. However, I'm not trying to get out
of it. I'm easy either way. Ever patient with everyone, that's what I
am (at least until any insults and trolling become evident).

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John Briggs - 14 May 2007 21:16 GMT
>> Why do we need to consider namings that are not recorded?
>
> Because those folk who were named had a name - or names - whether the
> fact was recorded or not.

The onus is on you to demonstrate that they might have had names.

> If you remember how this started, it was with your assertion that the
> giving of several forenames began with James I, to which I stated the
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> that's what I am (at least until any insults and trolling become
> evident).

I am perfectly well aware of the philosophical problems of proving a
negative, but you have chosen to pick on an example that is remarkably easy.
The contention, if you remember, is that multiple forenames began with
royalty (French royalty, it would seem) and the aristocracy (again, the
French aristocracy), spread to other countries (such as England and
Scotland) and percolated downwards.  This contention is remarkably easy to
demonstrate.  I do hope that you are not going to suggest that there are
undocumented members of the French and British royalties?  The aristocracies
are also remarkably well documented.  Documentation becomes patchier as you
go down the social order, and further back in time.

Now,  did you have any serious objections to the contention itself, and if
so, what were they?
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David - 14 May 2007 22:24 GMT
> >> Why do we need to consider namings that are not recorded?
> >
> > Because those folk who were named had a name - or names - whether
> > the fact was recorded or not.

> The onus is on you to demonstrate that they might have had names.

No sir, the onus, if there be one, is on you to prove your assertion,
to wit: that no-one before James I (or, if you like, some specific
French person or royalty) had more than one forename.

If you persist in this apparently meaningless request: that I
demonstrate that persons who had names had names, then all I can say is
that if they had names, they had names. Only those with no names had no
names.

> > If you remember how this started, it was with your assertion that
> > the giving of several forenames began with James I, to which I
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> > that's what I am (at least until any insults and trolling become
> > evident).

> I am perfectly well aware of the philosophical problems of proving a
> negative, but you have chosen to pick on an example that is
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> remarkably well documented.  Documentation becomes patchier as you
> go down the social order, and further back in time.

There could be undocumented members of any family. As such, we are
highly unlikely to know of them, short of an exhaustive use of the
TARDIS.

> Now,  did you have any serious objections to the contention itself,
> and if so, what were they?

Yes, you say that it is remarkably easy to demonstrate that multiple
forenames began with French Royalty. I await your demonstration which,
logic would have me believe, requires you to produce satisfactory proof
that no person, royal or otherwise, bore more than a single name prior
to whichever French royal you care to propose as the first
multiple-named. I again assert without any fear of rational
contradiction that such proof is impossible.

Again, I don't contradict you on the fact of the fashion spreading down
from royalty - that can obviously be easily demonstrated - only on the
claim that no-one before then, royal or common, had more than a single
forename.

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Mike Stevens - 14 May 2007 23:05 GMT
> Yes, you say that it is remarkably easy to demonstrate that multiple
> forenames began with French Royalty. I await your demonstration which,
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> on the claim that no-one before then, royal or common, had more than
> a single forename.

Far be it from me to intrude into what seems to be a private argument.  But
aren't you both pushing the concept of "forename" back a but further in
history than is really tenable?

In Roman times, people (or at least the middle classes and above) had three
names, each of which had a different connotation (roughly speaking, one used
only by friends and family, one official personal name and one family name).
Later and more northern practice seems to have most people with a single
name  -  no forename, no surname, just a name.  Then the practice of
surnames came in  -  some of them trade-related (Smith), some place-related
(Lichfield) , some ancestry-related (Davidson) (possibly derived from
Scandinavian practice).  But Royalty by convention didn't use surnames as
such, but their titles.  Elizabeth I wasn't known as "Elizabeth Tudor" but
as "Elizabeth of England".  Her father and grandfather were neither of them
known (after they came to the throne) as "Henry Tudor" but both as "Roy
Harry", "Roy" being the title (spelled "Roi" in other times & places).  I
believe that many aristocrats did the same.

While it seems to me fairy likely that royal and aristocratic families may
have taken to multiple (fore-)names to preserve family traditions (mustn't
upset either granddad),  I see it as equally likely that well-to-do merchant
families might well have done the same, for similar reasons.

There's a whole load of hypotheses to juggle with.  What this thread needs
now is some solid evidence.  Otherwise let's all just shut up.

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John Briggs - 15 May 2007 00:25 GMT
> While it seems to me fairly likely that royal and aristocratic
> families may have taken to multiple (fore-)names to preserve family
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> There's a whole load of hypotheses to juggle with.  What this thread
> needs now is some solid evidence.  Otherwise let's all just shut up.

Multiple forenames only appear in the 16th century.

William Camden writing in 1614:

"But two christian names are rare in England, and I only remember now his
Majesty, who was named Charles James, as the prince his sonne Henry Frederic
: and among private men, Thomas Maria Wingfield, and Sir Thomas Posthumus
Hobby."

James was born in 1566.

Henri III of France, fourth son of Catherine de' Medici, had been baptised
Alexandre-Édouard in 1551.
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Ildhund - 15 May 2007 16:08 GMT
> Henri III of France, fourth son of Catherine de' Medici, had been baptised
> Alexandre-Édouard in 1551.

Leonie Frieda's splendid biography "Catherine de Medici" (W&N, London 2003)
opens with the words "Caterina Maria Romula de Medici was born .[in]. 1519."
Any advance (or perhaps retard)?

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David - 15 May 2007 09:23 GMT
[Snip}

> There's a whole load of hypotheses to juggle with.  What this thread
> needs now is some solid evidence.  Otherwise let's all just shut up.

Don't look at me, guv. All I did was ask a rhetorical question.

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Mike Stevens - 15 May 2007 09:56 GMT
> [Snip}
>
>> There's a whole load of hypotheses to juggle with.  What this thread
>> needs now is some solid evidence.  Otherwise let's all just shut up.
>
> Don't look at me, guv. All I did was ask a rhetorical question.

The trouble with rhetorical questions is that some people will insist on
trying to answer them.  :-)

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David - 15 May 2007 17:19 GMT
> > [Snip}
> >
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> >
> > Don't look at me, guv. All I did was ask a rhetorical question.

> The trouble with rhetorical questions is that some people will insist
> on trying to answer them.  :-)

Some folk will answer anything!

Actually, I've been thinking about this problem of multiple names.
Presumably Mr Briggs is thinking only of registered Christian names
and, perhaps unwisely, I referred to them as 'forenames' which rather
does necessitate the use of a surname, so restricting us to
comparatively recent times. If rather we think more along the lines of
personal names or the name(s) by which a person is normally known by
his family and peers, then it is obvious that we have clear documentary
evidence of multiple names from millenia ago.

As to the N or M in the catechism, possibly it is to allow the
participation of several persons - as Mr Briggs says -, but it struck
me that at the time, many good country folk were still secret
worshippers of the British or English gods. Requiring them to declare
their worship of foreign gods - as the catechism does - might well
necessitate ensuring that their allegiance was not pledged solely in
their (single, baptismal) Christian name but in every name by which
they were known - including nicknames, coven names, whatever. I.e. it
removed a possible let-out clause. Maybe fanciful, but just a thought.

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Blue Sow - 14 May 2007 11:17 GMT
> Sorry, but I have given up reading the exchanges between you two because
> they tend to be bad-tempered and I don't know the background to your
> mutual hostility. spo I could only judge on the basis of what you had
> written.

Sorry if the exchange between myself and 'David' has in anyway spoiled your
enjoyment of the group.  I have no idea why he was so unpleasant with me and
some other contributors.
I have 'killed' him now, thus avoiding any temptation to engage in a similar
exchange in future.

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David - 14 May 2007 17:12 GMT
> > Sorry, but I have given up reading the exchanges between you two
> > because they tend to be bad-tempered and I don't know the
> > background to your mutual hostility. spo I could only judge on the
> > basis of what you had written.

> Sorry if the exchange between myself and 'David' has in anyway
> spoiled your enjoyment of the group.  I have no idea why he was so
> unpleasant with me and some other contributors. I have 'killed' him
> now, thus avoiding any temptation to engage in a similar exchange in
> future.

Nope, you haven't killed me; I'm still here.

Nor am I unpleasant with anyone except in response to unpleasantness or
insult directed toward me.

I was perfectly pleasant to you and strove to be as helpful as I could
to your questions about what I'd written. That is until you started
writing such sarcastic and condescending things as:

"I appreciate that English can be a difficult language to learn and I
suspect that most here merely wish to help - some obviously resent
assistance. Good luck with your learning anyway."

Even so, I joked in reply, only to find that in the next post you made
a remark which, to all intents and purposes could only be understood as
accusing me of lying. Nor did you see fit to apologise for the remark
when I produced web proof of what I had said.

With each successive post you made, the level of insults coming from
you increased.

I'm glad that you won't read this and won't reply. However, since you
see fit to write complete fabrications about me, I only deem it right
that I put the record straight.

You, whoever you are hiding behind the pseudonym "blue sow", are a liar
and a troll.

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Molly Mockford - 13 May 2007 20:43 GMT
At 18:06:02 on Sun, 13 May 2007, David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>
wrote in <4ee2708dbcnospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

>Since I cannot but write what is spoken,

Now, this does puzzle me.  All of us here make a distinction between
spoken and written English (even those who are not aware of doing so).
By and large, we learn spoken English at home and we learn written
English at school;  and the two never overlap 100%, no matter in which
part of the country we are raised.  Even the kiddies who have invented
their own txtspk are making a distinction between spoken English and
written (of a sort) English.

You, David, are no exception.  Something like the following is
impossible to render in spoken English without re-casting it:

>And if I were "blue sow" I might suggest "it may well be an example of
>an idiolect." You wouldn't like it if I did or, in this case, if I said
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
>[1] Why is she wearing my mother on her head?

I am notorious in certain groups for my fondness for footnotes
(particularly late on a Saturday night) - but not even I would attempt
to introduce one into spoken English.
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David - 13 May 2007 22:39 GMT
> At 18:06:02 on Sun, 13 May 2007, David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>
> wrote in <4ee2708dbcnospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

> >Since I cannot but write what is spoken,

> Now, this does puzzle me.  All of us here make a distinction between
> spoken and written English (even those who are not aware of doing
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> who have invented their own txtspk are making a distinction between
> spoken English and written (of a sort) English.

True, but if I were to say that in Yorkshire there was a form of
genitive which differed from the standard English genitive, and that
"wife's sister's husband" and "Tom Henry's cat" illustrated it, you
might well wonder just how it differed.

Were I to say that it was an "s-less" genitive which in Yorkshire
dialect produced examples like, "our Jack's lad", you might well say,
"but that's not an "s-less" genitive, it's just the standard English
(Saxon) genitive.

should I reply to that saying that I thought it best not to write what
was actually said, lest it produce great misunderstanding, argument,
rancour, and trolling, but to make distinction between the spoken and
written phrase, you might well ask what bloody use it was me writing
anything in the first place?

One further thing. Were I just to mention the fact of the "s-less"
genitive, I might well be asked to give an example (after being totally
disbelieved for a start by those whose minds are too small to think any
current English other than "standard" English is at all possible), at
which point I'd be no better off than where I started in the first
place.

> You, David, are no exception.  Something like the following is
> impossible to render in spoken English without re-casting it:

> >And if I were "blue sow" I might suggest "it may well be an example
> >of an idiolect." You wouldn't like it if I did or, in this case, if
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> >
> >[1] Why is she wearing my mother on her head?

> I am notorious in certain groups for my fondness for footnotes
> (particularly late on a Saturday night) - but not even I would
> attempt to introduce one into spoken English.

That's fair enough but attempting to prove by such an example that I
must translate dialect English into standard English in order to
provide an illustration of dialect is just plain ludicrous.

Or maybe it's not? If you've been following the thread, you ought to
know by now how the Yorkshire genitive is used. Perhaps you could shew
me how you would take that 'spoken' English and recast it into
'written' English so that all these trolls and Einde would understand
the meaning whilst at the same time understand the "s-less" genitive.

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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 23:58 GMT
David schrieb:
<snip>

> Or maybe it's not? If you've been following the thread, you ought to
> know by now how the Yorkshire genitive is used. Perhaps you could shew
> me how you would take that 'spoken' English and recast it into
> 'written' English so that all these trolls and Einde would understand
> the meaning whilst at the same time understand the "s-less" genitive.

H9owever, it might have helped if after giving the dialect version you
had provided a "translation" into standard English. given that you were
trying to illustrate a Yorkshire non-Saxon genitive there was no way
that those of us who hadn't encountered this structure before and were
unfamiliar with naming conventions in Yorkshire would know that Tom
Henry didn't mean the same as "Tom's Henry" in standard English. The
latter might sound clunky in standard English, but that doesn't
necessarily mean that it must sound clunky in Yorkshire dialect. After
all, "my sister wife husband", to cite the correct version of the first
example I came across, doesn't just sound clunky in standard English it
sounds totally wrong.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 14 May 2007 09:43 GMT
> David schrieb: <snip>
> >
[quoted text clipped - 16 lines]
> correct version of the first example I came across, doesn't just
> sound clunky in standard English it sounds totally wrong.

"my sister wife husband" was a later typo (or a spelling error,
according to Ben Shimmin), the correct version of which, "my wife
sister husband", was in the post to which you replied initially and
where the concept was introduced:

=====================================================================

In article <4ee17c9326nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>, David
<nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid> wrote:
> In article <slrn.2007-05-11.19-59-03@candide.bas.me.uk>, Ben Shimmin
> <bas@llamaselector.com> wrote:

> > I'm sure that you could spin it out into a 17 page article and win
> > the Pulitzer Prize, but `By then' used in this way still sounds
> > clunky to me.

> Surely it is in the nature of (the English) language to sound clunky
> to those who are used to different idioms, or dialects?

> For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort
> to English to me.

=====================================================================

I can understand that you might find the "s-less" genitive unusual but
given the prevalence of dependency strings in English compound nouns,
another e.g., "desk drawer lock" (the lock of the drawer of my desk),
the form of which seems to me to be identical to the Yorkshire genitive
string, I really don't see why you should find it so difficult to work
out the meaning.

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Molly Mockford - 13 May 2007 23:59 GMT
At 22:39:44 on Sun, 13 May 2007, David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>
wrote in <4ee2899c8dnospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

>That's fair enough but attempting to prove by such an example that I
>must translate dialect English into standard English in order to
>provide an illustration of dialect is just plain ludicrous.

I was attempting to prove no such thing, as a re-reading of my post will
demonstrate.  I was taking issue with your assertion that "I cannot but
write what is spoken" - in other words, that you were incapable of
writing anything other than spoken English - and demonstrating that you
were, indeed, writing written English.

(Oh, and by the way, I also interpreted your riddle as meaning the cat
which belonged to Henry who belonged to our Tom.)
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David - 14 May 2007 10:02 GMT
> At 22:39:44 on Sun, 13 May 2007, David <nospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>
> wrote in <4ee2899c8dnospam@nomaps.amnops.invalid>:

> >That's fair enough but attempting to prove by such an example that I
> >must translate dialect English into standard English in order to
> >provide an illustration of dialect is just plain ludicrous.

> I was attempting to prove no such thing, as a re-reading of my post
> will demonstrate.  I was taking issue with your assertion that "I
> cannot but write what is spoken" - in other words, that you were
> incapable of writing anything other than spoken English - and
> demonstrating that you were, indeed, writing written English.

Which is getting into very silly nitpicking. Of course what I write is
written. What I hear is spoken. Are you saying, then, that it is
impossible to write down what one hears?

I read your post. Not only that, I quoted it when I replied to you.
Yes, we learn spoken English and we learn written English. Spoken
English is spoken; written English is written. Spoken English quoted in
writing is ? You failed to say what that was. Would you like to tell
me? And when I say "I cannot but write what is spoken", have you not
the wit to understand that I wish to write down as closely as possible
the words and letters which most nearly represent the spoken words and
sounds?

I ask you again, if I hear "wife sister" as the spoken words and
sounds, what written words and letters should I use to represent them?

> (Oh, and by the way, I also interpreted your riddle as meaning the
> cat which belonged to Henry who belonged to our Tom.)

It wasn't a riddle. And I'm surprised you managed to reason out the
facts of belonging given that there were no terminal esses to aid you.

Standard English is full of instances where several meanings can be
taken (and lawyers find rich pickings from that fact) but we don't have
this sort of song and dance routine every time anybody writes anything.

Folk in other parts of the country say some quite ludicrous things. I
said my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different sort of
English from me, and when he says "I'm off down the pub", should I get
my knickers in a twist because I don't find him rottingly smelly in the
alehouse cellar where, logically (working out his riddle), he should be?

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Einde O'Callaghan - 12 May 2007 19:10 GMT
David schrieb:

>>>For example, my wife sister husband speaks an entirely different
>>>sort to English to me.
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>
> (Of course, you might prefer "than me".)

That wasn't really what I was querying - what I found strange is "my
wife sister husband". Is this really Yorkshire dialect?

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 12 May 2007 21:34 GMT
> David schrieb:
> >
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
> That wasn't really what I was querying - what I found strange is "my
> wife sister husband". Is this really Yorkshire dialect?

(You've replied to my reply to Tony and not to my reply to your
previous post.)

I don't know whether it's purely Yorkshire but yes, although a string
of relationships such as that would probably not be usual. Something
more common might be, "Is that our John wife handbag?"

As I said, I think it's possibly Norse in origin as opposed to Saxon or
Danish - at least that's what I've heard/read in the past.

It might, however, simply be a similar construct to e.g. "there's a
chip in my car windscreen" which is as readily understood and accepted
as "there's a chip in my car's windscreen".

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Thomas Hejl Pilgaard - 13 May 2007 10:50 GMT
>> David schrieb:
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 20 lines]
> As I said, I think it's possibly Norse in origin as opposed to Saxon
> or Danish - at least that's what I've heard/read in the past.

I'm not sure if it means anything, but we do still have such
strings of relationship in danish. Only, we combine the words,
as we have a tendency to do:

Strings of relationship used today:
"morbror" - mor bror - mother brother (uncle ("onkel"))
"farbror" - far bror - father brother (uncle ("onkel"))
"mormor", "morfar", "farmor" & "farfar".

More compound words (is that what you'd call them?):
"maelkejunge"  - maelke junge  - milk jug
"graesstraa"   - graes strå    - grass straw
"doerhaengsel" - doer haengsel - door hinge
"sandorm"      - sand orm      - sand worm

As for the use of strings of relationships in english, their
use sounds proper to me for objects, but not for people.
There is no rule to that effect?
David - 13 May 2007 12:18 GMT
> > As I said, I think it's possibly Norse in origin as opposed to Saxon
> > or Danish - at least that's what I've heard/read in the past.

I think I must have remembered wrongly about the Norse - although
that's possibly the reason why language changes throughout the rest of
the country didn't happen in Yorkshire (except perhaps in the northern
part of Yorkshire where the great Abbeys were).

> I'm not sure if it means anything, but we do still have such
> strings of relationship in danish. Only, we combine the words,
> as we have a tendency to do:

> Strings of relationship used today:
> "morbror" - mor bror - mother brother (uncle ("onkel"))
> "farbror" - far bror - father brother (uncle ("onkel"))
> "mormor", "morfar", "farmor" & "farfar".

And this appears to shew genetives with no modification (e.g. the "es"
or "'s" Saxon genetive of standard English) which is what occurs in
Yorkshire dialect English.

> More compound words (is that what you'd call them?):
> "maelkejunge"  - maelke junge  - milk jug
> "graesstraa"   - graes strå    - grass straw
> "doerhaengsel" - doer haengsel - door hinge
> "sandorm"      - sand orm      - sand worm

> As for the use of strings of relationships in english, their
> use sounds proper to me for objects, but not for people.
> There is no rule to that effect?

I think they're called noun phrases or somesuch; grammar really isn't
my strong point.

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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 15:50 GMT
Thomas Hejl Pilgaard schrieb:

<snip>

> More compound words (is that what you'd call them?):

Compound nouns is the proper term - all Germanic languages see to employ
this type of structure - although German can take it to extremes.

For example, the regulations governing shipping on the Danube are called
the "Donausschifffahrtspolizeiverordnung" and there are several limited
companies containing the word(s) "Donauschifffahrtsaktiengesellschaft".

There are however quite a few even longer examples. Most of them in
German will however contain at least one genitive "s" (Saxon genitive)
somewhere or other.

> "maelkejunge"  - maelke junge  - milk jug
> "graesstraa"   - graes strå    - grass straw
> "doerhaengsel" - doer haengsel - door hinge
> "sandorm"      - sand orm      - sand worm

These would be regarded as compound nouns in English too, even though
they are written as two words, as they refer to one concept.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
John Briggs - 13 May 2007 18:54 GMT
> These would be regarded as compound nouns in English too, even though
> they are written as two words, as they refer to one concept.

Hence "headline language", of which the classic example was:

Macmillan refuses bank rate rise leak probe.
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John Hall - 13 May 2007 19:55 GMT
>Hence "headline language", of which the classic example was:
>
>Macmillan refuses bank rate rise leak probe.

Shouldn't that have been "Macmillan bank rate rise leak probe refusal"?
:)
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David - 13 May 2007 20:15 GMT
> > These would be regarded as compound nouns in English too, even
> > though they are written as two words, as they refer to one concept.

> Hence "headline language", of which the classic example was:

> Macmillan refuses bank rate rise leak probe.

Totally incomprehensible! We could discuss it for months....

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David - 12 May 2007 22:40 GMT
> That wasn't really what I was querying - what I found strange is "my
> wife sister husband". Is this really Yorkshire dialect?

Found a reference to the "s-less" genetive having its origins in Old
English and resisting change in Middle English.

http://www.yorksj.ac.uk/dialect/megramma.htm

Note this refers to words with specific endings (already ends in "s",
regular genetive in "en", ending in "er" with no "es" genetive) but in
my experience is extended to others.

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Einde O'Callaghan - 13 May 2007 07:45 GMT
David schrieb:

>>That wasn't really what I was querying - what I found strange is "my
>>wife sister husband". Is this really Yorkshire dialect?
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> regular genetive in "en", ending in "er" with no "es" genetive) but in
> my experience is extended to others.

Thank you - I hadn't encountered this form before. However, it's now
clear that it isn't standard English, which is my interest as a teacher
of English as a second language.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
David - 13 May 2007 09:00 GMT
> David schrieb:
> >
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
> clear that it isn't standard English, which is my interest as a
> teacher of English as a second language.

I never claimed it was "standard" English but an English dialect - yet
still a valid form of English.

Most spoken native English is dialect to some greater or lesser extent;
standard English is that to which our best literary efforts usually get
edited.

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Einde O'Callaghan - 11 May 2007 12:45 GMT
Matthew Huntbach schrieb:

>> Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:
>
[quoted text clipped - 18 lines]
> "In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training sessions,
>  by then she would swim 2 miles every week".

I understand what you're trying to say, but the sentence doesn't feel
quite right to me.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Mark Wallace - 11 May 2007 19:21 GMT
>> Bygvir Melkerson schrieb:
>
[quoted text clipped - 18 lines]
> "In 1990, Diane won a gold medal for swimming. In her training sessions,
>  by then she would swim 2 miles every week".

You'd get away with that in speech, but I'd blue-pencil any written example
of it I came across, if that full point remained after "week".
Either use the past progressive, or qualify the use of "would" with a clause
that gives some kind of condition:
-- "~~ by then she would swim 2 miles every week, before her breakfast on
Thursday."

But even then, the past progressive or simple past are preferable.
Mark Wallace - 11 May 2007 19:14 GMT
> Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall?
>
> "By then, Diane WOULD HAVE swum 2 miles"

Indicative, conditional, or subjunctive.

> "By then, Diane SHOULD HAVE swum 2 miles"

Indicative, subjunctive, or imperative -- and conditional, at a push.

> "By then, Diane COULD HAVE swum 2 miles"

Indicative or conditional.

However, if they are the whole sentences, and no conditions are set in other
sentences in the same paragraphs as they, scratch the conditional and
subjunctive options.
Thomas Hejl Pilgaard - 11 May 2007 19:33 GMT
>> Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall?
>>
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
> in other sentences in the same paragraphs as they, scratch the
> conditional and subjunctive options.

Okay, so a little more fodder, then:

"John always spent an hour in the sauna before returning. By then, Diane
would have swum 2 miles."

"John decided to spend an hour in the sauna before returning. By then, Diane
should have swum 2 miles."

"John realized, it would take him an hour before he would be back. By then,
Diane could have swum 2 miles."
Einde O'Callaghan - 11 May 2007 22:13 GMT
Thomas Hejl Pilgaard schrieb:

>>>Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall?
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 24 lines]
> "John realized, it would take him an hour before he would be back. By then,
> Diane could have swum 2 miles."

These are all connected with habitual action in the past - not
conditional at all.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan
Mark Wallace - 12 May 2007 17:55 GMT
>>> Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall?
>>>
[quoted text clipped - 24 lines]
> "John realized, it would take him an hour before he would be back. By
> then, Diane could have swum 2 miles."

I don't see your point.  If you're saying that completely recasting a
sentence can give a clause a different meaning, then I have to agree with
you.
David - 12 May 2007 18:14 GMT
> >>> Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall?
> >>>
[quoted text clipped - 25 lines]
> > "John realized, it would take him an hour before he would be back.
> > By then, Diane could have swum 2 miles."

> I don't see your point.  If you're saying that completely recasting a
> sentence can give a clause a different meaning, then I have to agree
> with you.

But he's not "completely recasting" the sentences, he's merely
providing the context by a previous sentence - as you asked.

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Thomas Hejl Pilgaard - 13 May 2007 10:54 GMT
>>>>> Into which conjugation/tense should these expression fall?
>>>>>
[quoted text clipped - 32 lines]
> But he's not "completely recasting" the sentences, he's merely
> providing the context by a previous sentence - as you asked.

Indeed, that is what I thought I was doing.
Providing the context, which I assumed was implied all along.
I would never start a sentence with "By then..." unless it fit
into a context set by a previous sentence. Would anyone?
David - 13 May 2007 12:41 GMT
> > But he's not "completely recasting" the sentences, he's merely
> > providing the context by a previous sentence - as you asked.

> Indeed, that is what I thought I was doing.
> Providing the context, which I assumed was implied all along.
> I would never start a sentence with "By then..." unless it fit
> into a context set by a previous sentence. Would anyone?

Dunno about that... There's some very strange native English speakers
around here!

But no, I wouldn't.

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